ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely observe the client's lower extremities for any signs of swelling, which could indicate the development of edema. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because Nifedipine is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is unrelated to Nifedipine's common adverse effects. Choice D, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Nifedipine use.
2. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain.
- B. If pain is not relieved, take another tablet in 10 minutes.
- C. You can take up to five tablets in 15 minutes.
- D. Swallow the tablet with water.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain. If the pain is not relieved after 5 minutes, the client should call 911 and take a second tablet. Taking more than the recommended dose can lead to serious side effects, and swallowing the tablet would not provide the rapid effect needed in cases of chest pain. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the standard protocol for nitroglycerin use in treating angina. Choice B is incorrect as the second tablet should be taken after 5 minutes, not 10 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as taking up to five tablets in 15 minutes is excessive and can result in serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue for rapid absorption, not swallowed.
3. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following herbal supplements should the client be instructed to avoid?
- A. St. John's wort
- B. Echinacea
- C. Garlic
- D. Ginseng
Correct answer: A
Rationale: St. John's wort should be avoided by clients taking Warfarin as it can reduce the medication's effectiveness by affecting its metabolism. Echinacea, garlic, and ginseng are also known to interact with Warfarin, either by increasing the risk of bleeding or altering its anticoagulant effects. However, St. John's wort is particularly significant due to its potent enzyme-inducing properties that can lead to subtherapeutic levels of Warfarin, potentially increasing the risk of blood clots.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider immediately?
- A. INR of 4.0
- B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
- C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
- D. BUN of 18 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 4.0 indicates that the client's blood is clotting too slowly, increasing the risk of bleeding. This level is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin therapy. Therefore, the healthcare professional should notify the provider immediately to prevent potential bleeding complications. The other laboratory values are within normal limits and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health while on Warfarin therapy.
5. A client is prescribed Lithium. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential toxicity?
- A. Serum sodium
- B. Serum lithium
- C. Serum potassium
- D. Serum calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Lithium, monitoring serum lithium levels is crucial to ensure they remain within the therapeutic range and to assess for potential toxicity. Monitoring serum lithium levels helps prevent adverse effects associated with lithium toxicity, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, and confusion.
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