Nursing Elites

1. A hospitalized client has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should be prepared for transfusion?

• A. Whole blood
• B. Platelets
• C. Fresh frozen plasma
• D. Packed red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the appropriate blood product for a client with an elevated aPTT as it contains various coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathies and prevent bleeding. Elevated aPTT indicates a deficiency in specific clotting factors, and fresh frozen plasma is rich in these factors. Whole blood, platelets, and packed red blood cells do not contain the necessary coagulation factors to correct an elevated aPTT, so they are not indicated in this situation.

2. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about Terbutaline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. This medication will stop my contractions.
• B. This medication will prevent vaginal bleeding.
• C. This medication will promote blood flow to my baby.
• D. This medication will increase my prostaglandin production.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors, leading to uterine smooth muscle relaxation and stopping contractions. It is commonly used to delay preterm labor. Choice B is incorrect because Terbutaline is not used to prevent vaginal bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because Terbutaline's primary action is not related to promoting blood flow to the baby. Choice D is incorrect because Terbutaline does not increase prostaglandin production; instead, it works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors.

3. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Quinidine
• B. Disopyramide
• C. Aminodarone
• D. Propafenone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

• A. Urinary retention
• B. Tachypnea
• C. Hypertension
• D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

5. Which of the following conditions are not treated with Barbiturates?

• A. Seizures
• B. Hypotension
• C. Insomnia
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypotension is not treated with barbiturates. Barbiturates are primarily used for treating seizures, insomnia, and anxiety, but they are not indicated for the treatment of hypotension.

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