a nurse is preparing to administer filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant which of the following i
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention when preparing to administer Filgrastim is to discard the vial after removing one dose of the medication. This practice helps prevent contamination and ensures the medication's effectiveness. Reusing the vial can lead to contamination and compromise the sterility of the medication, putting the client at risk. Therefore, it is crucial to follow proper aseptic technique and discard the vial after withdrawing the prescribed dose.

2. Reteplase (Retavase) has been ordered for a client diagnosed with an MI. The nurse understands that this drug needs to be administered within which time frame following the onset of symptoms?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reteplase (Retavase) is a thrombolytic medication used in the treatment of myocardial infarction (MI). It is crucial to administer this drug within 30 minutes to 12 hours following the onset of symptoms to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and improve patient outcomes. Administering Reteplase within this time frame helps in restoring blood flow to the affected areas of the heart by dissolving blood clots, reducing myocardial damage, and potentially preventing further complications associated with MI.

3. What is the therapeutic use of Phenytoin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Phenytoin is primarily used to diminish seizure activity and is effective in terminating ventricular arrhythmias. It works by stabilizing neuronal membranes, reducing repetitive neuronal firing, and limiting the spread of seizure activity in the brain. While phenytoin does not have a direct role in preventing thrombus formation or extending existing thrombi, it is crucial in managing seizures and certain arrhythmias.

4. A client has been prescribed Phenelzine for depression. Which of the following indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is a known adverse effect of Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used for depression. It is caused by a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions, leading to symptoms like dizziness or fainting. Monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial during Phenelzine therapy to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hearing loss, gastrointestinal bleeding, and weight loss are not typically associated with Phenelzine use.

5. Hydrochlorothiazide is classified as a

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is classified as a diuretic. Diuretics are medications that help the body get rid of excess salt and water by increasing urine production, reducing fluid retention, and lowering blood pressure. Option A, Anti-inflammatory, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide does not primarily reduce inflammation. Option B, Antiarrhythmic, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is not used to correct heart rhythm irregularities. Option D, Antifungal, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is not used to treat fungal infections.

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