ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer Belimumab to a client with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?
- A. Warm the medication to room temperature before administering.
- B. Administer the medication by IV bolus over 5 minutes.
- C. Dilute the medication in a 5% dextrose and water solution.
- D. Monitor the client for hypersensitivity reactions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring the client for hypersensitivity reactions is crucial when administering Belimumab due to its known potential for severe infusion reactions and anaphylaxis. The healthcare provider should closely observe the client during the administration to promptly identify and manage any hypersensitivity reactions that may occur. Choice A is incorrect because warming Belimumab is not necessary before administration. Choice B is incorrect as Belimumab should not be administered as an IV bolus over 5 minutes; it should be given as an IV infusion over a longer duration. Choice C is incorrect as Belimumab should not be diluted in a 5% dextrose and water solution.
2. A client with cirrhosis is about to receive a dose of lactulose. The client questions the need for the medication, stating they are not constipated. The nurse should explain that lactulose is used in cirrhosis to reduce levels of which component in the bloodstream?
- A. Glucose
- B. Ammonia
- C. Potassium
- D. Bicarbonate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Lactulose is administered to clients with cirrhosis to lower blood ammonia levels, thus aiding in the prevention of hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels in cirrhosis can lead to cognitive impairment and hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, the correct answer is B (Ammonia). Glucose (Choice A) is not the component targeted by lactulose in cirrhosis. Potassium (Choice C) and Bicarbonate (Choice D) are not directly affected by lactulose administration in cirrhosis.
3. A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine is prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks why the provider prescribed Methylnaltrexone. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. The medication will increase your mother's respirations.
- B. The medication will prevent dependence on the Morphine.
- C. The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.
- D. The medication works with the Morphine to increase pain relief.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C: 'The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.' Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat severe constipation unrelieved by laxatives in opioid-dependent clients. It works by blocking the mu opioid receptors in the GI tract, which helps alleviate constipation without affecting pain relief or causing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Methylnaltrexone's primary action is related to managing constipation rather than increasing respirations, preventing dependence on Morphine, or enhancing pain relief when used alongside Morphine.
4. A client taking nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) complains of a headache. Which conclusion is most appropriate by the nurse?
- A. A headache indicates a serious allergic reaction to nitroglycerin.
- B. The client will not have a headache if the nitroglycerin is taken with a high-fat meal.
- C. Nitroglycerin does not cause a headache.
- D. The most common side effect of nitroglycerin is a headache.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is known to cause headaches as a common side effect due to its vasodilatory properties. It dilates blood vessels, which can lead to headaches. While a headache can indicate other serious conditions, the most common association with nitroglycerin use is a headache. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this side effect and provide appropriate education and support to the client.
5. What is an expected outcome for Lithium use in patients with bipolar disorder?
- A. Reduced risk of myocardial infarction
- B. Reduced risk of GI ulcers
- C. Decrease in respiratory distress
- D. Decreased incidence of acute manic episodes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased incidence of acute manic episodes. Lithium is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder by helping to stabilize mood and reduce the intensity and frequency of manic episodes. This leads to better overall management of the disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lithium is not known to reduce the risk of myocardial infarction, GI ulcers, or respiratory distress in patients with bipolar disorder.
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