a nurse in a substance abuse clinic is assessing a client who recently started taking disulfiram the client reports having discontinued the medication
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ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client in a substance abuse clinic is being assessed by a nurse after discontinuing disulfiram due to severe nausea and vomiting. What is the likely cause of the client's distress?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Disulfiram, when combined with alcohol, leads to a severe reaction causing nausea and vomiting. Since the client experienced these symptoms after starting disulfiram, it is likely that they consumed alcohol while taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms are more indicative of the interaction with alcohol rather than an allergic response. Choice B is incorrect as severe nausea and vomiting are not common side effects of disulfiram alone. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication of an overdose based on the symptoms described.

2. A client has a new prescription for Ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take Ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach. This medication is best absorbed when taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals. Instructing the client to take it with milk, before bedtime, or with antacids can decrease its absorption and effectiveness. Taking it with milk can reduce the absorption of iron due to the calcium in milk. Taking it before bedtime is not necessary and may cause gastrointestinal upset. Taking it with antacids can interfere with the absorption of iron.

3. Why is it important to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is crucial to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors to assess for renal impairment. ACE inhibitors can affect renal function, potentially leading to renal impairment. Monitoring the patient's fluid balance helps in early recognition of any renal issues and allows for timely interventions to prevent complications.

4. A client asks a nurse about Feverfew. Which response should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is B: 'It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.' Feverfew is known for reducing the frequency of migraine headaches, but it has not been proven to relieve an existing migraine headache. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Feverfew is not used to treat skin infections, lessen nasal congestion in the common cold, or relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.

5. A client has been prescribed Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can lead to hyperkalemia by inhibiting the action of aldosterone. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's potassium levels to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Incorrect Options Rationale: - Option B, Hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. - Option C, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Valsartan use. - Option D, Hypercalcemia, is not a known adverse effect of Valsartan; instead, Valsartan can lead to hyperkalemia.

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