a nurse in a substance abuse clinic is assessing a client who recently started taking disulfiram the client reports having discontinued the medication
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client in a substance abuse clinic is being assessed by a nurse after discontinuing disulfiram due to severe nausea and vomiting. What is the likely cause of the client's distress?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Disulfiram, when combined with alcohol, leads to a severe reaction causing nausea and vomiting. Since the client experienced these symptoms after starting disulfiram, it is likely that they consumed alcohol while taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms are more indicative of the interaction with alcohol rather than an allergic response. Choice B is incorrect as severe nausea and vomiting are not common side effects of disulfiram alone. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication of an overdose based on the symptoms described.

2. What nursing interventions should you perform when a patient is on Albuterol? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct nursing interventions to perform when a patient is on Albuterol include assessing the patient's lung sounds, pulse, and blood pressure before administering the medication to monitor for cardiovascular side effects like increased heart rate. Additionally, it is crucial to observe for paradoxical bronchospasms, a rare but serious adverse reaction where the medication causes a worsening of bronchospasm instead of relief. Monitoring for changes in behavior is not directly related to Albuterol administration and is not a standard nursing intervention for patients receiving this medication, making choice B incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it includes the essential nursing actions for patients on Albuterol.

3. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation. Clients should monitor for this adverse effect characterized by swelling in the extremities. Muscle pain (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Verapamil. Dry cough (choice B) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors. Increased urination (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Verapamil. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring for peripheral edema.

4. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is beginning therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Prompt reporting of dyspnea allows for timely evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings that the client should report.

5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. The nurse should identify that the concurrent use of which of the following medications increases the client's risk of bleeding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen, especially in high doses, can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting the clotting factors dependent on vitamin K, so Vitamin K intake should be consistent but not excessive. Calcium carbonate and ranitidine do not significantly increase the risk of bleeding when used concurrently with Warfarin.

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