Nursing Elites

1. A client in a substance abuse clinic is being assessed by a nurse after discontinuing disulfiram due to severe nausea and vomiting. What is the likely cause of the client's distress?

• A. The client demonstrated an allergic response to the medication.
• B. The client experienced a common side effect of the medication.
• C. The client consumed alcohol while taking the medication.
• D. The client took an overdose of the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Disulfiram, when combined with alcohol, leads to a severe reaction causing nausea and vomiting. Since the client experienced these symptoms after starting disulfiram, it is likely that they consumed alcohol while taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms are more indicative of the interaction with alcohol rather than an allergic response. Choice B is incorrect as severe nausea and vomiting are not common side effects of disulfiram alone. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication of an overdose based on the symptoms described.

2. A client prescribed Warfarin is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• D. Avoid foods high in iron.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of Warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can reduce the medication's anticoagulant effect. Therefore, clients taking Warfarin should be advised to avoid or consume a consistent amount of foods high in vitamin K to maintain the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables, dairy products, or avoiding foods high in iron are not directly related to the interaction with Warfarin.

3. A healthcare provider is planning to administer IV Alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

• A. Administer IM Enoxaparin along with the Alteplase dose.
• B. Hold direct pressure on puncture sites for up to 30 minutes.
• C. Administer Aminocaproic acid IV prior to alteplase infusion.
• D. Prepare to administer Alteplase within 8 hours of manifestation onset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering IV Alteplase for a massive Pulmonary Embolism, the healthcare provider should plan to hold direct pressure on puncture sites for 10 to 30 minutes or until oozing of blood stops. This is crucial to prevent bleeding complications at the puncture sites. Choice A is incorrect because Enoxaparin is not usually administered along with Alteplase for a Pulmonary Embolism. Choice C is incorrect because Aminocaproic acid is not typically given prior to alteplase infusion in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because Alteplase should be administered within 2 hours of onset of manifestations for Pulmonary Embolism, not within 8 hours.

4. A client with Diabetes is experiencing Nausea due to Gastroparesis. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Lubiprostone
• B. Metoclopramide
• C. Bisacodyl
• D. Loperamide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoclopramide, a dopamine antagonist, is indicated for treating nausea and increasing gastric motility. In the context of diabetic gastroparesis, it can alleviate bloating and nausea by enhancing gastric emptying. Lubiprostone (Choice A) is a chloride channel activator used for chronic idiopathic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation. Bisacodyl (Choice C) is a stimulant laxative primarily used for constipation. Loperamide (Choice D) is an anti-diarrheal agent and would not be appropriate for treating nausea and gastroparesis.

5. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops.
• B. Expect increased salivation during the first few weeks of therapy.
• C. Avoid driving until the client's reaction to the medication is known.
• D. Stop the medication if you experience a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so it is important for the client to refrain from activities that require alertness until they are aware of how the medication affects them. Choice A is incorrect because a rash is not a common side effect of clonidine. Choice B is incorrect as increased salivation is not an expected side effect of clonidine. Choice D is also incorrect as dry mouth is a common side effect of clonidine, but it is not a reason to stop the medication unless severe or bothersome. Therefore, the priority instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known to ensure safety.

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