Nursing Elites

1. A client in a substance abuse clinic is being assessed by a nurse after discontinuing disulfiram due to severe nausea and vomiting. What is the likely cause of the client's distress?

• A. The client demonstrated an allergic response to the medication.
• B. The client experienced a common side effect of the medication.
• C. The client consumed alcohol while taking the medication.
• D. The client took an overdose of the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Disulfiram, when combined with alcohol, leads to a severe reaction causing nausea and vomiting. Since the client experienced these symptoms after starting disulfiram, it is likely that they consumed alcohol while taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms are more indicative of the interaction with alcohol rather than an allergic response. Choice B is incorrect as severe nausea and vomiting are not common side effects of disulfiram alone. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication of an overdose based on the symptoms described.

2. A patient has been taking hydrocodone, an opioid analgesic for their moderate pain, and they have taken more than the prescribed dose. What should you administer as the antidote if they experience toxicity?

• A. Naloxone
• B. N-acetylcysteine
• C. Atropine
• D. Digoxin immune Fab

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the specific antidote for opioid toxicity. It works by blocking the effects of opioids on the central nervous system, thereby reversing symptoms like respiratory depression and sedation. N-acetylcysteine is used for acetaminophen overdose, while atropine is indicated for certain types of poisonings. Digoxin immune Fab is used for digoxin toxicity. Therefore, in the case of opioid toxicity due to hydrocodone overdose, naloxone is the appropriate antidote.

3. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should assess the client for swelling in the lower extremities, a common manifestation of this side effect. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to ensure early detection and appropriate management. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Hypertension (Choice D) is the condition for which Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.

4. Reteplase (Retavase) has been ordered for a client diagnosed with an MI. The nurse understands that this drug needs to be administered within which time frame following the onset of symptoms?

• A. 45 minutes to 18 hours
• B. 30 minutes to 12 hours
• C. 90 minutes to 36 hours
• D. 60 minutes to 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reteplase (Retavase) is a thrombolytic medication used in the treatment of myocardial infarction (MI). It is crucial to administer this drug within 30 minutes to 12 hours following the onset of symptoms to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and improve patient outcomes. Administering Reteplase within this time frame helps in restoring blood flow to the affected areas of the heart by dissolving blood clots, reducing myocardial damage, and potentially preventing further complications associated with MI.

5. A healthcare professional is planning to administer IV Alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Administer IM Enoxaparin along with the Alteplase dose.
• B. Hold direct pressure on puncture sites for up to 30 min.
• C. Administer Aminocaproic acid IV prior to alteplase infusion.
• D. Prepare to administer Alteplase within 8 hr of manifestation onset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention when administering IV Alteplase is to hold direct pressure on puncture sites for 10 to 30 minutes or until oozing of blood stops. This helps prevent bleeding complications associated with thrombolytic therapy. Administering IM Enoxaparin is not indicated with Alteplase, as it is an anticoagulant rather than a thrombolytic agent. Aminocaproic acid is not typically administered prior to alteplase infusion in the context of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. While timely administration of Alteplase is important, the specific timeframe within which it should be administered may vary based on the clinical situation, so a strict 8-hour window is not universally applicable.

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