Nursing Elites

1. When should a patient taking omeprazole be administered the medication?

• A. Before bedtime
• B. After dinner
• C. In the morning on an empty stomach
• D. With the patient's lunch meal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole should be administered in the morning on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness. This timing is important as omeprazole works best when taken before a meal to inhibit acid production by the stomach. Taking it on an empty stomach in the morning allows the medication to be absorbed efficiently and provides optimal therapeutic effects throughout the day. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking omeprazole before bedtime, after dinner, or with lunch may not allow the medication to work effectively as it requires an empty stomach for better absorption and action.

2. When teaching the parents of a child who has a new prescription for Desipramine, which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the parents is the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Constipation
• B. Suicidal thoughts
• C. Photophobia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority adverse effect to report when a child is taking Desipramine is suicidal thoughts. Desipramine can lead to an increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. The nurse should emphasize to the parents the importance of monitoring the child for any signs of worsening depression or suicidal ideation. Prompt reporting of such symptoms can help prevent harm to the child. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority adverse effects associated with Desipramine. While constipation, photophobia, and dry mouth can occur as side effects of Desipramine, they are not as critical as the risk of suicidal thoughts, which requires immediate attention to ensure the safety of the child.

3. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today.
• C. Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

4. A client has a new prescription for Lithium Carbonate. When teaching the client about ways to prevent Lithium toxicity, what advice should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid using acetaminophen for headaches.
• B. Restrict intake of foods high in sodium.
• C. Decrease fluid intake to less than 1,500 mL daily.
• D. Limit aerobic activity in hot weather.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to limit aerobic activity in hot weather to prevent sodium/water depletion, which can increase the risk for Lithium toxicity. Excessive sweating and fluid loss can lead to dehydration and changes in lithium levels, potentially resulting in toxicity. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Avoiding acetaminophen for headaches is not directly related to Lithium toxicity. Restricting sodium intake and decreasing fluid intake can lead to increased lithium levels and toxicity, so these are not recommended actions.

5. Which drug undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism?

• A. Heparin
• B. Insulin
• C. Propranolol
• D. Nitroglycerin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism in the liver. When administered orally, propranolol is extensively metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, leading to reduced bioavailability. This process is known as first-pass hepatic metabolism, which significantly affects the drug's effectiveness and necessitates higher oral doses compared to other routes of administration. Heparin (Choice A) is not metabolized by the liver but excreted unchanged by the kidneys. Insulin (Choice B) is a peptide hormone that is not subject to significant first-pass metabolism. Nitroglycerin (Choice D) is primarily metabolized in the blood and tissues, bypassing significant first-pass metabolism in the liver.

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