a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has been prescribed prednisone for an inflammatory condition which of the following instructio
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client has been prescribed Prednisone for an inflammatory condition and is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to take Prednisone in the morning to prevent insomnia. Prednisone can cause insomnia as a side effect, so taking it in the morning can help minimize this issue. It is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions regarding the timing of Prednisone administration to optimize its effectiveness and minimize adverse effects.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.

3. When teaching a client with a prescription for Vancomycin, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Therefore, it is important for clients to monitor for any changes in their hearing while taking this medication and promptly report any issues to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because red man syndrome is associated with rapid infusion of Vancomycin, not a common side effect during treatment; taking the medication with a full glass of water is a general instruction for many medications but not specific to Vancomycin; and increasing potassium-rich foods is not directly related to Vancomycin therapy.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who is starting therapy with tamoxifen. The healthcare provider should recognize that tamoxifen is contraindicated in which of the following clients?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen is contraindicated in clients with a history of thromboembolic events, such as deep-vein thrombosis, due to the increased risk of blood clots. The estrogenic effects of tamoxifen can further increase the risk of thromboembolic events, making it unsafe for individuals with a history of deep-vein thrombosis. Choice B (migraine headaches), Choice C (hypertension), and Choice D (anemia) are not contraindications for tamoxifen therapy. Migraine headaches, hypertension, and anemia do not pose the same risk of adverse effects related to blood clot formation as deep-vein thrombosis does.

5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following herbal supplements should the client be instructed to avoid?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: St. John's wort should be avoided by clients taking Warfarin as it can reduce the medication's effectiveness by affecting its metabolism. Echinacea, garlic, and ginseng are also known to interact with Warfarin, either by increasing the risk of bleeding or altering its anticoagulant effects. However, St. John's wort is particularly significant due to its potent enzyme-inducing properties that can lead to subtherapeutic levels of Warfarin, potentially increasing the risk of blood clots.

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