a nurse is teaching a client who is taking sucralfate po for peptic ulcer disease and has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures which
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client with Peptic Ulcer Disease who is taking Sucralfate PO has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sucralfate can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin. To prevent this interaction, the client should allow a 2-hour interval between taking sucralfate and phenytoin. This interval helps ensure that each medication is absorbed effectively without affecting the other's absorption. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking an antacid with sucralfate, taking sucralfate with a glass of milk, or chewing sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing are not necessary or recommended instructions to prevent the interaction between sucralfate and phenytoin.

2. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each day, usually at bedtime, to prevent tolerance. This practice allows for a nitrate-free interval, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Applying the patch to a different site each day (choice A) is not necessary as long as the skin is clean and rotated to avoid skin irritation. Applying the patch over an area with little or no hair (choice C) does not impact the effectiveness of the medication. Keeping the patch on for 24 hours at a time (choice D) can lead to tolerance, which is why the patch should be removed daily.

3. Which drug classes are NOT typically used to treat angina?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Angina is primarily treated with calcium channel blockers, organic nitrates, and beta blockers. Alpha blockers are not commonly used in the treatment of angina. Calcium channel blockers help dilate blood vessels, decreasing the workload on the heart. Organic nitrates relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing the heart's workload. Beta blockers reduce the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. Alpha blockers are more commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia.

4. When a client is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide, what adverse effect should they monitor for as instructed by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyponatremia is a critical adverse effect associated with hydrochlorothiazide use. This medication is a diuretic that can lead to excessive loss of sodium and water from the body, potentially causing low sodium levels and resulting in hyponatremia. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of hyponatremia, such as confusion, headache, weakness, and muscle cramps, is essential to prevent serious complications. Ototoxicity (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide. Hypoglycemia (choice C) and hyperkalemia (choice D) are also not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use.

5. When providing discharge instructions to a client prescribed Prednisone, which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Prednisone can lead to potassium depletion, making it essential to consume foods high in potassium, such as bananas, oranges, and spinach, to maintain electrolyte balance and prevent complications. Choice B is incorrect because increasing dairy products is not specifically necessary when taking Prednisone. Choice C is wrong as foods high in vitamin K are not contraindicated with Prednisone. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to decrease protein intake when prescribed Prednisone.

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