Nursing Elites

1. A client with Peptic Ulcer Disease who is taking Sucralfate PO has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take an antacid with the sucralfate.
• B. Take sucralfate with a glass of milk.
• C. Allow a 2-hour interval between these medications.
• D. Chew the sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sucralfate can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin. To prevent this interaction, the client should allow a 2-hour interval between taking sucralfate and phenytoin. This interval helps ensure that each medication is absorbed effectively without affecting the other's absorption. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking an antacid with sucralfate, taking sucralfate with a glass of milk, or chewing sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing are not necessary or recommended instructions to prevent the interaction between sucralfate and phenytoin.

2. A patient is prescribed warfarin therapy for an artificial heart valve. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for a therapeutic effect of warfarin?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor Prothrombin time (PT) when a patient is on warfarin therapy. Warfarin affects blood clotting, and PT is used to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication. Hemoglobin (Choice A) is not directly affected by warfarin therapy and does not reflect its therapeutic effect. Bleeding time (Choice C) measures the time it takes for bleeding to stop after a standardized cut and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

3. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to cough. Monitoring for a persistent dry cough is crucial as it may indicate the need for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Enalapril use and are less likely to be monitored as adverse effects.

4. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Increased urination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation. Clients should monitor for this adverse effect characterized by swelling in the extremities. Muscle pain (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Verapamil. Dry cough (choice B) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors. Increased urination (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Verapamil. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring for peripheral edema.

5. When a client is starting long-term oral prednisone for chronic asthma, what adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Nervousness
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight gain is a common adverse effect of oral prednisone due to sodium and water retention, which can lead to fluid retention. Monitoring weight changes is important as it helps in early identification of this adverse effect, enabling timely interventions to manage it. Choice B, nervousness, is not typically associated with oral prednisone use. Bradycardia (Choice C) is unlikely as prednisone usually causes tachycardia or increased heart rate. Constipation (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone compared to weight gain.

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