a nurse is teaching a client who is taking sucralfate po for peptic ulcer disease and has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures which
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client with Peptic Ulcer Disease who is taking Sucralfate PO has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sucralfate can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin. To prevent this interaction, the client should allow a 2-hour interval between taking sucralfate and phenytoin. This interval helps ensure that each medication is absorbed effectively without affecting the other's absorption. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking an antacid with sucralfate, taking sucralfate with a glass of milk, or chewing sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing are not necessary or recommended instructions to prevent the interaction between sucralfate and phenytoin.

2. When administering IV Acyclovir to a client with Varicella, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering IV Acyclovir to a client with Varicella, the nurse should infuse the medication over at least 1 hour to prevent nephrotoxicity. Rapid infusion can lead to adverse effects such as renal damage. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the recommended infusion rate to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect as stool softeners are not indicated in this situation. Choice B is incorrect because fluid intake should be maintained or increased to prevent dehydration and support kidney function. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring for hypotension is not specifically related to the administration of IV Acyclovir in Varicella.

3. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.

4. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic known to cause electrolyte imbalances, particularly hyponatremia (low sodium levels). The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia by assessing their electrolyte levels. Choice B, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide is more likely to cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) rather than hyperkalemia. Choice C, Hypercalcemia, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is not known to cause increased calcium levels. Choice D, Hypoglycemia, is also incorrect as it is not a common adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide.

5. An adolescent client has a new prescription for Clomipramine for OCD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to minimize an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To minimize the adverse effect of photophobia associated with Clomipramine, the client should be advised to wear sunglasses when outdoors. Clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) known to cause anticholinergic effects like photophobia, which can be reduced by protecting the eyes with sunglasses when exposed to bright light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because checking temperature daily, taking the medication in the morning, and adding extra calories to the diet are not specifically related to minimizing the adverse effect of photophobia caused by Clomipramine.

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