Nursing Elites

1. A client with Peptic Ulcer Disease who is taking Sucralfate PO has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take an antacid with the sucralfate.
• B. Take sucralfate with a glass of milk.
• C. Allow a 2-hour interval between these medications.
• D. Chew the sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sucralfate can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin. To prevent this interaction, the client should allow a 2-hour interval between taking sucralfate and phenytoin. This interval helps ensure that each medication is absorbed effectively without affecting the other's absorption. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking an antacid with sucralfate, taking sucralfate with a glass of milk, or chewing sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing are not necessary or recommended instructions to prevent the interaction between sucralfate and phenytoin.

2. A client is receiving Cefotaxime IV for a severe infection. Which finding indicates a potentially serious adverse reaction to this medication that the nurse should report to the provider?

• A. Diaphoresis
• B. Epistaxis
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Diarrhea is an adverse effect of cefotaxime and other cephalosporins that requires reporting to the provider. Severe diarrhea might indicate the client has developed antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis, which could be life-threatening. Diaphoresis, epistaxis, and alopecia are not typically associated with cefotaxime use and are less likely to indicate a serious adverse reaction necessitating immediate reporting.

3. A client has a new prescription for Levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Take this medication at bedtime.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take this medication with antacids.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to increase absorption and efficacy. Taking it with food or antacids can interfere with its absorption, affecting the medication's effectiveness.

4. A healthcare provider is educating a group of new parents about immunizations. The provider should instruct the parents that the series for which of the following vaccines is completed prior to the first birthday?

• A. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
• B. Meningococcal conjugate vaccine
• C. Varicella vaccine
• D. Rotavirus vaccine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rotavirus vaccine. The series for the Rotavirus vaccine is completed prior to the first birthday as it is only administered to infants less than 8 months of age. This vaccine provides protection against severe diarrhea and vomiting caused by rotavirus infection, which is common in infants and young children. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the series for these vaccines extends beyond the first birthday. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine and Meningococcal conjugate vaccine are typically given in multiple doses up to 2 years of age, while the Varicella vaccine is usually administered between 12 to 15 months of age.

5. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Edema
• B. Constipation
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Imatinib is known to cause edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of fluid retention, such as swelling of the extremities or weight gain. Edema can indicate potential complications and requires prompt intervention to prevent further issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with imatinib use. Constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not commonly reported adverse effects of imatinib therapy.

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