Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is not a known effect of the drug Clozapine?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Antipsychotic
• C. Used for Schizophrenia
• D. Hyperactivity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clozapine is associated with side effects like agranulocytosis (a serious blood condition), sedation (not hyperactivity), and is used as an antipsychotic to treat schizophrenia. Hyperactivity is not a typical effect of Clozapine, making it the correct answer in this context.

2. A client is starting a course of Metronidazole to treat an infection. For which of the following adverse effects should the client stop taking Metronidazole and notify the provider?

• A. Metallic taste
• B. Nausea
• C. Ataxia
• D. Dark-colored urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Ataxia.' Ataxia is a sign of central nervous system (CNS) toxicity, which can be a severe adverse effect of Metronidazole. Metallic taste and nausea are common side effects of Metronidazole but do not require stopping the medication unless they persist or worsen. Dark-colored urine is not typically associated with Metronidazole and does not indicate a severe adverse effect.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a hospitalized client who has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should the healthcare professional prepare to transfuse?

• A. Whole blood
• B. Platelets
• C. Fresh frozen plasma
• D. Packed red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the correct choice for a client with an elevated aPTT because it contains essential coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathy and prevent bleeding. It is rich in clotting factors like fibrinogen, factors V and VIII, which are crucial in maintaining proper blood clotting function. Whole blood (Choice A) is not typically used to correct coagulopathy and is more suitable for situations requiring both volume and oxygen-carrying capacity. Platelets (Choice B) are indicated for thrombocytopenia, not for correcting coagulation factors. Packed red blood cells (Choice D) are used to increase oxygen-carrying capacity in cases of anemia, not for correcting coagulopathy.

4. A client has a new prescription for Sucralfate to treat a duodenal ulcer. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Swallow the tablet whole.
• C. Take the medication 1 hour before meals.
• D. Chew the tablet before swallowing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Sucralfate is to take it 1 hour before meals. This timing allows the medication to coat the stomach lining, providing a protective barrier against stomach acid, which aids in healing the duodenal ulcer. Option A is incorrect as it contradicts the correct timing for taking Sucralfate. Option B is not necessary as it does not pertain to how the medication should be taken in relation to meals. Option D is incorrect as chewing the tablet before swallowing is not the correct administration method for Sucralfate.

5. A client has a prescription for Acyclovir. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Expect to take this medication long-term.
• B. Increase fluid intake during therapy.
• C. Avoid sexual contact while on this medication.
• D. Consult your healthcare provider if you experience nausea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Acyclovir is to increase fluid intake during therapy. Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity, potentially leading to kidney damage. Increasing fluid intake helps prevent this adverse effect by promoting adequate renal function and drug elimination. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Acyclovir is usually prescribed for short-term use, there is no need to avoid sexual contact while on the medication, and nausea is not a common side effect that necessitates immediate consultation with a healthcare provider.

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