Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• C. Expect to have increased urination.
• D. Take the medication with an antacid.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting Warfarin is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding; therefore, it is crucial for the client to watch for any signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stools, or unusual bleeding from gums or nose. If any of these signs occur, the client should promptly report them to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding foods high in vitamin K is related to other medications like Coumadin, increased urination is not a common side effect of Warfarin, and taking Warfarin with an antacid can potentially interfere with its absorption.

2. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following adverse effects should the client be instructed to monitor for and report to the provider?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Pedal edema
• C. Bruising
• D. Yellow-tinged vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision is a potential adverse effect of digoxin, which may indicate toxicity. It is crucial for the client to report this symptom promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent any further complications. Dry cough is not typically associated with digoxin use. Pedal edema is a common symptom of heart failure, which digoxin is prescribed to manage. Bruising is not a common adverse effect of digoxin.

3. A client has a new prescription for Nitrofurantoin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
• C. Take this medication at bedtime.
• D. Increase your intake of vitamins.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Nitrofurantoin is to take the medication with food. Taking Nitrofurantoin with food helps enhance absorption and reduces the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. It is important for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to ensure the client benefits optimally from the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding dairy products is not specifically required with Nitrofurantoin. Taking the medication at bedtime is not a standard instruction. Increasing vitamin intake is not necessary in relation to Nitrofurantoin therapy.

4. When administering medications to a 4-month-old infant, which of the following pharmacokinetic principles should be considered? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Infants have a more rapid gastric emptying time.
• B. Infants have immature liver function.
• C. Infants' blood-brain barrier is poorly developed.
• D. Infants have an increased ability to absorb topical medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering medications to a 4-month-old infant, the pharmacokinetic principle to consider is that infants have immature liver function until 1 year of age. This requires medications metabolized by the liver to be administered in smaller dosages. While infants do have a more rapid gastric emptying time, immature liver function is a more critical pharmacokinetic consideration in this context. Additionally, although infants have a poorly developed blood-brain barrier, this relates more to pharmacodynamic effects rather than pharmacokinetic principles. The statement about infants having an increased ability to absorb topical medications is not directly related to pharmacokinetic principles, making choice B the correct answer.

5. A client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia is due for a follow-up assessment. The nurse should expect the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Disorganized speech.
• B. Bizarre behavior.
• C. Impaired social interactions.
• D. Hallucinations.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client takes a conventional antipsychotic medication like chlorpromazine, the greatest improvement is typically seen in positive symptoms such as disorganized speech. These medications are more effective in managing positive symptoms like disorganized speech rather than negative symptoms like impaired social interactions or hallucinations. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate improvement in disorganized speech as a positive response to chlorpromazine treatment.

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