ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client has been prescribed Aspirin for prevention of cardiovascular disease. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?
- A. The client has a decrease in troponin levels.
- B. The client has a regular heart rhythm.
- C. The client experiences a decrease in episodes of angina.
- D. The client's blood pressure remains stable.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A decrease in episodes of angina is an indicator of Aspirin's effectiveness in preventing cardiovascular events. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, thereby reducing the formation of blood clots that could lead to angina episodes or more severe cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because troponin levels, heart rhythm, and blood pressure are not direct indicators of Aspirin's effectiveness in preventing cardiovascular events.
2. While collecting data from a client taking Gemfibrozil, a nurse should identify which of the following assessment findings as an adverse reaction to the medication?
- A. Mental status changes
- B. Tremor
- C. Jaundice
- D. Pneumonia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Jaundice is an adverse reaction that the nurse should identify when assessing a client taking Gemfibrozil. It is associated with liver impairment, which can be a side effect of this medication. Mental status changes and tremors are not typically associated with Gemfibrozil use. Pneumonia is not a common adverse reaction to this medication, and its occurrence is not directly linked to Gemfibrozil use.
3. When educating a client who has a prescription for Propranolol, what instruction should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Discontinue the medication if you feel fatigued.
- C. Expect to have decreased heart rate with this medication.
- D. Do not stop taking this medication abruptly.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a prescription for Propranolol is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abrupt cessation can result in rebound hypertension or other cardiac complications. It is crucial for the client to taper off the medication gradually under healthcare provider supervision to prevent adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because Propranolol can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect as discontinuing the medication based on fatigue alone is not advisable without consulting a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because while Propranolol can decrease heart rate, it is not the primary instruction to provide in this scenario.
4. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to cough. Monitoring for a persistent dry cough is crucial as it may indicate the need for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Enalapril use and are less likely to be monitored as adverse effects.
5. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cinchonism is associated with Quinidine, not Valproic acid, Isoniazid, or Ethosuximide. Cinchonism is characterized by symptoms such as tinnitus, dizziness, and headaches. Quinidine, being an antiarrhythmic agent, can lead to this condition as a side effect.
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