ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI
1. A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the client's vital signs.
- B. Request a consult with a dietitian.
- C. Suggest that the client rests before eating the meal.
- D. Request an order for an antiemetic.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should check the client's vital signs first because nausea and weakness can be signs of digoxin toxicity. Vital signs can provide immediate information on the client's condition and help guide further interventions. Monitoring vital signs will allow the nurse to assess for bradycardia, a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Requesting a dietitian consult (choice B) may be necessary but addressing the immediate concern of toxicity is the priority. Suggesting rest before eating (choice C) may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. Requesting an antiemetic (choice D) can be considered later but is not the initial action needed in this situation.
2. A client has a new prescription for Enfuvirtide to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions?
- A. Bone marrow suppression
- B. Pancreatitis
- C. Pancreatitis
- D. Bone marrow suppression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: While bone marrow suppression is not typically associated with Enfuvirtide, a more relevant concern is the risk of severe allergic reactions such as anaphylaxis. Enfuvirtide, an HIV fusion inhibitor, can cause local injection site reactions and systemic allergic responses. Monitoring for signs of allergic reactions, such as rash, fever, and difficulty breathing, is crucial to ensure the client's safety.
3. A client has a prescription for Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Increase fluid intake.
- C. Expect reddish-orange urine.
- D. Avoid high-protein foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole is to increase fluid intake. This helps prevent crystalluria and kidney stones, which are potential adverse effects of this medication. Adequate hydration is essential to reduce the risk of these complications.
4. A client with a history of migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which of the following findings in the client history should be reported to the provider by the nurse?
- A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
- B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
- C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
- D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a first-degree heart block due to its negative chronotropic properties that can further slow the heart rate. This can worsen conduction through the atrioventricular node, potentially leading to heart block progression. Therefore, the nurse should report the finding of a first-degree heart block to the provider before initiating Propranolol therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for Propranolol therapy. A prior myocardial infarction, taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, or using an SSRI for depression do not directly impact the initiation of Propranolol therapy in a client with a history of migraine headaches.
5. When caring for a school-age child with a new prescription for Atomoxetine, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Kidney toxicity
- B. Liver damage
- C. Seizure activity
- D. Adrenal insufficiency
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver damage. Atomoxetine can lead to liver damage as an adverse effect. Symptoms of liver damage include jaundice, upper abdominal tenderness, dark urine, and elevated liver enzymes. Monitoring for these signs is crucial when a child is on this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Atomoxetine is not known to cause kidney toxicity, seizure activity, or adrenal insufficiency as primary adverse effects.
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