Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking naproxen following an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following statements by the client requires further discussion?

• A. I signed up for a swimming class.
• B. I've been taking an antacid to help with indigestion.
• C. I've lost 2 pounds since my appointment 2 weeks ago.
• D. The naproxen is easier to take when I crush it and put it in applesauce.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client stating that they have been taking an antacid to help with indigestion while on naproxen requires further discussion. This statement suggests potential gastrointestinal distress or interactions between the medications. Antacids can affect the absorption of naproxen or lead to other complications. Therefore, the nurse should address this statement with the client to ensure safe and effective medication management. Choices A, C, and D do not raise immediate concerns related to the client's medication regimen and can be considered positive health behaviors or side effects of treatment that do not require immediate intervention.

2. Which of the following conditions are not treated with Barbiturates?

• A. Seizures
• B. Hypotension
• C. Insomnia
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypotension is not treated with barbiturates. Barbiturates are primarily used for treating seizures, insomnia, and anxiety, but they are not indicated for the treatment of hypotension.

3. A client is starting therapy with filgrastim. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Bone pain
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is starting therapy with filgrastim, monitoring for bone pain is essential. Filgrastim can lead to increased bone marrow activity, resulting in bone pain as a common adverse effect. Instructing the client to monitor and report any bone pain promptly can help in managing this side effect effectively.

4. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Edema
• B. Constipation
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Edema. The nurse should monitor the client for edema when receiving imatinib. Imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, can lead to fluid retention and edema as a common adverse effect. This can manifest as swelling in various parts of the body, indicating the need for close monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications related to fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not typically associated with imatinib use. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to monitor in a client receiving this medication.

5. A healthcare professional is planning to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
• B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea that occurs with morphine.
• C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
• D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should take when administering Morphine IV to a postoperative client is to withhold the medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min. Respiratory depression is a common adverse effect of opioids like Morphine. Administering opioids when the respiratory rate is already compromised can further depress breathing, leading to life-threatening complications. Monitoring for seizures and confusion (Choice A) is not directly related to Morphine administration. Protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea (Choice B) is not a common side effect of morphine. Administering Morphine via IV bolus (Choice D) should be done carefully but is not the most critical action in this scenario.

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