a nurse in an acute mental health facility is caring for a client who is experiencing withdrawal from opioid use and has a new prescription for clonid
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. In an acute mental health facility, a patient experiencing opioid withdrawal has a new prescription for Clonidine. What action should the nurse identify as the priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This is essential for establishing a baseline assessment, especially for a patient undergoing opioid withdrawal and starting a new medication like Clonidine. Monitoring vital signs is crucial for evaluating the patient's response to treatment and detecting any potential complications early on. Administering the medication, providing ice chips, and educating the patient on Clonidine's effects are important tasks but obtaining baseline vital signs takes precedence to ensure the patient's safety and proper management.

2. A client with Graves' disease is being taught about her prescribed medications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of Propranolol in the treatment of Graves' disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol is a beta-adrenergic antagonist that helps decrease heart rate and control tremors in individuals with Graves' disease. It does not increase blood flow to the thyroid gland (choice A), prevent excess glucose in the blood (choice B), or directly decrease thyroid hormone levels in the body (choice D). Propranolol's primary role in Graves' disease is to alleviate symptoms like tremors and fast heart rate by blocking the effects of excessive thyroid hormone, rather than reducing the actual levels of thyroid hormone in the body.

3. When administering the drug lithium, what is one important side effect to watch for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering lithium, it is crucial to watch for the side effect of angioedema. Angioedema is a potential adverse reaction associated with lithium therapy, characterized by rapid swelling beneath the skin, often around the eyes and lips. Monitoring for this side effect is essential to promptly address and manage any signs of angioedema that may occur during lithium treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because anaphylaxis, seizures, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated side effects of lithium administration.

4. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, an adverse effect of the medication. It suggests potential fluid overload or exacerbation of heart conditions, both of which require immediate attention. Reporting dyspnea promptly allows for timely evaluation and management. Blood glucose levels and urine output are important parameters to monitor but are not directly related to the administration of Mannitol for increased intracranial pressure. Bilateral equal pupil size is a normal and expected finding.

5. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which preexisting condition can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ketamine can produce psychological effects like hallucinations. Patients with schizophrenia may be more prone to experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms when exposed to Ketamine due to its potential to worsen psychotic symptoms. Therefore, schizophrenia can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for the use of Ketamine.

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