Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Furosemide to a client with heart failure. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication undiluted.
• B. Dilute the medication with normal saline.
• C. Administer the medication through a central line.
• D. Administer the medication slowly over 2 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Furosemide, when administered intravenously, should be given slowly over 2 minutes to reduce the risk of ototoxicity, a known adverse effect of rapid infusion. This method allows for better monitoring of the client's response and decreases the likelihood of adverse reactions associated with a faster administration rate.

2. During an assessment, a male client who has recently started taking Haloperidol is displaying certain symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize in reporting to the provider?

• A. Shuffling gait
• B. Neck spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Impotence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are indicative of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that requires urgent intervention. Immediate reporting to the provider is crucial to address this potentially harmful condition and ensure the client's safety. Shuffling gait, drowsiness, and impotence are important to monitor but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as acute dystonia. Acute dystonia can lead to serious complications if not promptly treated, making it the priority in this scenario.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Belimumab for a client with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Warm the medication to room temperature before administering.
• B. Administer the medication by slow IV infusion over the recommended time frame.
• C. Dilute the medication in an appropriate solution as per manufacturer guidelines.
• D. Monitor the client for hypersensitivity reactions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should plan to take when administering Belimumab is to monitor the client for hypersensitivity reactions. Belimumab is known to cause severe infusion reactions, including anaphylaxis in some cases. Monitoring for hypersensitivity reactions is crucial to detect and manage any adverse reactions promptly. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because warming the medication, administering by slow IV infusion, and dilution are not specific actions needed for Belimumab administration. The priority is to monitor the client for potential hypersensitivity reactions to ensure their safety.

4. A client is receiving treatment with etoposide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Etoposide, a chemotherapeutic agent, commonly causes hypotension as an adverse effect. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of hypotension, such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or a drop in blood pressure, to promptly intervene and prevent complications.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional monitor?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum sodium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing the excretion of potassium in the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare professional should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are on Lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril primarily affects potassium levels due to its mechanism of action as an ACE inhibitor. Serum sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by Lisinopril in the same way as potassium.

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