at what amount does acetaminophen stop controlling pain
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Proctored Pharmacology ATI

1. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.

2. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid consuming foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin's effectiveness can be affected by vitamin K intake. Clients should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K and avoid sudden increases in foods high in vitamin K to ensure the medication works properly and consistently. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Monitoring blood pressure, increasing intake of green, leafy vegetables, or taking the medication with a high-fat meal are not specific instructions related to Warfarin therapy.

3. How is lithium typically administered?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lithium is typically administered orally to ensure proper absorption and distribution in the body. By taking lithium orally, it allows the medication to be absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract and distributed effectively. Intravenous and intramuscular routes are not commonly used for lithium administration as they can lead to rapid, unpredictable absorption and increase the risk of toxicity. Sublingual administration is also not the typical route for lithium, as it is usually taken orally for consistent and controlled absorption.

4. A client has an infection and a prescription for gentamicin intermittent IV bolus every 8 hr. A peak and trough is required with the next dose. Which of the following actions should be taken to obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level, the trough should be drawn immediately before administering the medication, and the peak level should be drawn 30 minutes after the dose. This timing allows for the assessment of the lowest and highest drug concentrations in the bloodstream, ensuring therapeutic levels are achieved while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Choice A is correct as it follows this timing protocol. Choices B and D have incorrect timing for peak and trough levels, which would not provide an accurate representation of the drug's concentration in the bloodstream.

5. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide, a diuretic, can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly hyponatremia (low sodium levels). The nurse should closely monitor the client's sodium levels due to the potential adverse effect of Hydrochlorothiazide. Incorrect Rationales: - Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is less likely to be caused by Hydrochlorothiazide; in fact, it can lead to hypokalemia. - Hypercalcemia (Choice C) is not a common adverse effect of Hydrochlorothiazide. - Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with Hydrochlorothiazide use.

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