at what amount does acetaminophen stop controlling pain

ATI RN

Proctored Pharmacology ATI

1. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?

A. Over 1,000 mg
B. 750 mg
C. Over 1,500 mg
D. 150 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following medications places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?

A. Spironolactone
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Loop diuretics
D. ACE inhibitors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Loop diuretics, such as Furosemide, can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity by causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia enhances the toxic effects of Digoxin on the heart, leading to an increased risk of Digoxin toxicity. Spironolactone (Choice A) is less likely to cause hypokalemia and does not significantly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Calcium channel blockers (Choice B) and ACE inhibitors (Choice D) do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity through hypokalemia; therefore, they are not the medications that place the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity.

3. When administering IV Acyclovir to a client with Varicella, what action should the nurse take?

A. Administer a stool softener
B. Decrease fluid intake following infusion
C. Infuse Acyclovir over 1 hr
D. Monitor for hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering IV Acyclovir to a client with Varicella, the nurse should infuse the medication over at least 1 hour to prevent nephrotoxicity. Rapid infusion can lead to adverse effects such as renal damage. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the recommended infusion rate to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect as stool softeners are not indicated in this situation. Choice B is incorrect because fluid intake should be maintained or increased to prevent dehydration and support kidney function. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring for hypotension is not specifically related to the administration of IV Acyclovir in Varicella.

4. A client has a new prescription for Lithium Carbonate. When teaching the client about ways to prevent Lithium toxicity, what advice should the nurse provide?

A. Avoid using acetaminophen for headaches.
B. Restrict intake of foods high in sodium.
C. Decrease fluid intake to less than 1,500 mL daily.
D. Limit aerobic activity in hot weather.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to limit aerobic activity in hot weather to prevent sodium/water depletion, which can increase the risk for Lithium toxicity. Excessive sweating and fluid loss can lead to dehydration and changes in lithium levels, potentially resulting in toxicity. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Avoiding acetaminophen for headaches is not directly related to Lithium toxicity. Restricting sodium intake and decreasing fluid intake can lead to increased lithium levels and toxicity, so these are not recommended actions.

5. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

A. Mexiletine
B. Amiodarone
C. Quinidine
D. Procainamide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.