ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI
1. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
- A. INR of 4.0
- B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
- C. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
- D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 4.0 is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. This finding requires immediate reporting to the provider for appropriate intervention to prevent complications associated with excessive anticoagulation. Potassium, sodium, and creatinine levels are within normal ranges and are not directly related to the risk of bleeding in a client on Warfarin therapy.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical history of a client who is scheduled for surgery and takes Warfarin daily. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Potassium level
- B. INR
- C. BUN
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most important lab value to monitor in a client taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and the INR reflects the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications.
3. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should be provided?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Avoid potassium-rich foods.
- C. Increase your intake of sodium.
- D. Monitor your blood pressure daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid potassium-rich foods.' Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and consuming foods high in potassium can lead to hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of the medication. Therefore, the client should be advised to avoid potassium-rich foods to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Spironolactone with food is not necessary for its effectiveness. Increasing sodium intake is not typically recommended with Spironolactone therapy. While monitoring blood pressure is important, it is not specifically related to the use of Spironolactone.
4. Which of the following types of insulin is classified as 'long-acting'?
- A. Lispro (Humalog)
- B. NPH (Humulin N)
- C. Regular insulin (Humulin R)
- D. Glargine (Lantus)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Glargine (Lantus). Glargine is classified as a long-acting insulin due to its slow, steady release over an extended period, making it suitable for basal insulin requirements. It has a duration of action that can last up to 24 hours, helping to maintain stable blood sugar levels throughout the day. Lispro (Humalog) is a rapid-acting insulin, NPH (Humulin N) is an intermediate-acting insulin, and Regular insulin (Humulin R) is a short-acting insulin, so they are not classified as long-acting insulins.
5. While caring for a client receiving IV heparin, which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Thrombocytopenia
- D. Leukopenia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet count, is a known adverse effect associated with heparin therapy. It can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and should be closely monitored during treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension is not typically associated with heparin use; hyperglycemia is not a common adverse effect of heparin; leukopenia is not a primary side effect of heparin therapy.
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