ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has a new diagnosis of Fibromyalgia. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client?
- A. Colchicine
- B. Hydroxychloroquine
- C. Auranofin
- D. Duloxetine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Duloxetine. Duloxetine is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor commonly used to manage fibromyalgia. It helps in reducing pain and improving mood in individuals with this condition. Colchicine (Choice A) is primarily used to treat gout, while Hydroxychloroquine (Choice B) and Auranofin (Choice C) are medications used to manage conditions like rheumatoid arthritis and lupus, not fibromyalgia.
2. A client with active tuberculosis asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Four medications decrease the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
- B. Four medications reduce the chance that the bacteria will become resistant.
- C. Four medications reduce the risk of adverse reactions.
- D. Four medications decrease the chance of having a positive tuberculin skin test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacteria developing resistance to any single drug. This approach helps prevent treatment failure and ensures successful treatment outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple medications is not related to allergic reactions. Choice C is incorrect as the risk reduction is mainly focused on bacterial resistance rather than adverse reactions. Choice D is not relevant as the purpose of taking multiple medications is not to affect the tuberculin skin test results.
3. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for metronidazole. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to avoid which of the following?
- A. Dairy products
- B. Alcohol
- C. Leafy green vegetables
- D. Grapefruit juice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alcohol. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking metronidazole due to the risk of a disulfiram-like reaction. This reaction can cause symptoms like flushing, headache, nausea, and vomiting when alcohol is consumed while on metronidazole. Dairy products, leafy green vegetables, and grapefruit juice do not have significant interactions with metronidazole. Dairy products do not interfere with metronidazole absorption; leafy green vegetables are safe to consume as they do not affect metronidazole metabolism, and grapefruit juice is not contraindicated with metronidazole.
4. A client with HIV is starting therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Ringing in the ears
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequent fatigue.
5. A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?
- A. Dry oral mucous membranes
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
- D. Anorexia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.
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