ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
- A. Ketamine
- B. Naltrexone
- C. Flumazenil
- D. Fluvoxamine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist that competitively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation or respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepines, administering Flumazenil can help reverse the effects and restore the client's consciousness and respiratory drive. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist and not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to counteract benzodiazepine sedation.
2. A client with increased liver enzymes is taking herbal supplements. Which of the following herbal supplements should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Glucosamine
- B. Saw palmetto
- C. Kava
- D. St. John's wort
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should report kava to the provider because chronic use or high doses of kava can lead to liver damage, including severe liver failure. It is crucial for the nurse to be vigilant about any herbal supplement that could potentially worsen the client's liver condition.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?
- A. Butorphanol has a greater risk of abuse than morphine.
- B. Butorphanol causes a higher incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
- C. Butorphanol cannot be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
- D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Butorphanol, an opioid agonist/antagonist, can lead to abstinence syndrome in clients who are opioid-dependent. This syndrome may present with symptoms like abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to consider this risk when administering Butorphanol to clients with a history of substance use disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol is less likely to be abused than morphine, causes less respiratory depression than morphine, and can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
4. A client is prescribed Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Store the medication in a cool, dry place.
- C. Swallow the tablets whole.
- D. Take one tablet every 5 minutes up to three doses for chest pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a chest pain episode, the client should take one nitroglycerin tablet sublingually every 5 minutes up to a total of three doses. If chest pain persists after three doses, emergency medical attention should be sought. Nitroglycerin should not be swallowed but allowed to dissolve under the tongue for rapid absorption. Storing the medication in a cool, dry place helps maintain its effectiveness.
5. What is the classification of furosemide?
- A. Loop diuretic
- B. Anticoagulant
- C. Iron supplement
- D. Anticonvulsant
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is classified as a loop diuretic, not an anticoagulant, iron supplement, or anticonvulsant. Loop diuretics, like furosemide, act in the loop of Henle in the kidney to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to increased urine output. This mechanism makes them effective in treating conditions such as edema and hypertension. Therefore, the correct classification for furosemide is a loop diuretic (Choice A).
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