Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease has a new prescription for epoetin alfa. The nurse should instruct the client to increase dietary intake of which of the following substances?

• A. Iron
• B. Protein
• C. Potassium
• D. Sodium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease are often prescribed epoetin alfa to treat anemia. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, increasing the body's demand for iron to support this process. Therefore, clients taking epoetin alfa should be advised to increase their dietary intake of iron-rich foods to meet the increased demand and prevent iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while protein is essential for overall health, potassium and sodium intake may need to be restricted in clients with chronic kidney disease to manage electrolyte balance and blood pressure.

2. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Fomepizole
• B. Naloxone
• C. Phytonadione
• D. Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adverse effect of prochlorperazine is acute dystonia, which is evidenced by spasms of the muscles in the face, neck, and tongue. Diphenhydramine is used to suppress extrapyramidal effects of prochlorperazine, making it the most appropriate choice to address the client's spasms. Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, not for acute dystonia. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose, not for acute dystonia. Phytonadione is vitamin K, used for the reversal of warfarin, not for acute dystonia.

3. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hemorrhagic cystitis when receiving cyclophosphamide due to its potential to cause bladder irritation and lead to this serious adverse effect. It is essential to assess for symptoms such as hematuria, dysuria, and flank pain. Monitoring for hypertension, hyperglycemia, and ototoxicity is not directly related to the side effects of cyclophosphamide.

4. A healthcare provider plans to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the provider take?

• A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
• B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea associated with morphine.
• C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
• D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the provider is to withhold morphine if the client's respiratory rate is 12/min or less. Respiratory depression is a serious side effect of morphine and other opioids. Withholding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is essential to prevent further respiratory compromise in the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because monitoring for seizures and confusion, protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea, and administering morphine via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less are not the primary actions to ensure client safety when administering morphine IV. Respiratory status is crucial due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with opioid administration.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical history of a client who is scheduled for surgery and takes Warfarin daily. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Potassium level
• B. INR
• C. BUN
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most important lab value to monitor in a client taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and the INR reflects the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications.

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