ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client has been prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Avoid activities that may cause injury.
- C. Monitor your heart rate daily before taking the medication.
- D. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation is to avoid activities that may cause injury. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding, so it is important to prevent situations that could lead to injury or trauma. Choice A is incorrect because anticoagulants are not typically affected by food intake. Choice C is not necessary for all anticoagulant medications, and heart rate monitoring is more relevant for other conditions. Choice D is not directly related to the action of anticoagulants and is not a priority instruction for this medication.
2. A client presents in the Emergency Department with a suspected MI. Which medication should NOT be given as soon as possible?
- A. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
- B. Morphine
- C. Aspirin (ASA)
- D. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the setting of a suspected myocardial infarction (MI), the priority medications to administer as soon as possible include aspirin (ASA) and possibly morphine to manage pain and anxiety. Clopidogrel (Plavix) is not typically administered immediately in the emergency setting for MI management. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is indicated after aspirin administration and stabilization of the patient. Therefore, in this scenario, clopidogrel should NOT be given as a first-line medication for a suspected MI.
3. A client has been taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Sedation
- B. Nasal congestion
- C. Productive cough
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nasal congestion. After more than 5 days of use, nasal sympathomimetic medications like phenylephrine can lead to rebound nasal congestion. This occurs due to prolonged vasoconstriction of nasal blood vessels, causing worsening nasal congestion. Sedation (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of phenylephrine nasal drops. Productive cough (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are also not typical adverse effects associated with this medication.
4. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. The nurse should identify that the concurrent use of which of the following medications increases the client's risk of bleeding?
- A. Vitamin K
- B. Calcium carbonate
- C. Acetaminophen
- D. Ranitidine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen, especially in high doses, can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting the clotting factors dependent on vitamin K, so Vitamin K intake should be consistent but not excessive. Calcium carbonate and ranitidine do not significantly increase the risk of bleeding when used concurrently with Warfarin.
5. What is the pharmacological action of metformin?
- A. Blocks stimulation of beta1 and beta2.
- B. Blocks vasoconstriction and aldosterone.
- C. Acts at many levels in the CNS to produce an anxiolytic effect.
- D. Decreases hepatic glucose production.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases hepatic glucose production. Metformin's primary pharmacological action is to decrease hepatic glucose production, leading to lower blood sugar levels and improved insulin sensitivity in the liver. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because metformin does not block stimulation of beta1 and beta2 receptors, vasoconstriction, aldosterone, or act in the CNS to produce an anxiolytic effect. Therefore, these options are not reflective of metformin's mechanism of action.
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