Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed Ranitidine. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored by the nurse?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC).
• B. Serum creatinine.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Serum glucose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ranitidine can potentially lead to blood dyscrasias, necessitating the monitoring of the client's CBC. Checking the CBC can help detect any abnormalities in blood cell counts and assess the client's overall hematologic status during Ranitidine therapy.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client who has severe Thrombocytopenia. How long should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over?

• A. Within 30 min/unit
• B. Within 60 min/unit
• C. Within 2 hr/unit
• D. Within 4 hr/unit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered quickly to maintain their effectiveness and minimize the risk of clumping. The recommended administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit. This rapid administration helps ensure the platelets remain viable and functional for the client receiving the transfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the transfusion within 30 minutes per unit. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the recommended administration time for platelets, which could compromise their efficacy and pose risks to the client.

3. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum sodium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion through the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect hyperkalemia early and prevent adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril is not known to significantly impact sodium, calcium, or magnesium levels in the same way it affects potassium levels.

4. A client has difficulty swallowing medications and is prescribed enteric-coated aspirin PO once daily. The client asks if the medication can be crushed to make it easier to swallow. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?

• A. Crushing the medication might cause you to have a stomachache or indigestion.
• B. Crushing the medication is a good idea, and I can mix it in some ice cream for you.
• C. Crushing the medication would release all the medication at once, rather than over time.
• D. Crushing is unsafe, as it destroys the ingredients in the medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Crushing an enteric-coated medication can cause it to break down in the stomach instead of the intestines, potentially leading to gastrointestinal distress like stomachache or indigestion. It is important to take enteric-coated medications whole to ensure they are properly absorbed in the intestines and to prevent irritation to the stomach.

5. In the management of nausea due to gastroparesis in a client with Diabetes, which of the following medications may be prescribed?

• A. Lubiprostone
• B. Metoclopramide
• C. Bisacodyl
• D. Loperamide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoclopramide, as a dopamine antagonist, is commonly prescribed to manage nausea and improve gastric motility in clients with diabetic gastroparesis. By enhancing gastric emptying, it can help alleviate symptoms like bloating and nausea associated with gastroparesis. Choice A, Lubiprostone, is primarily used to treat chronic idiopathic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation, not nausea due to gastroparesis. Choice C, Bisacodyl, is a stimulant laxative used for the treatment of constipation and bowel preparation before procedures, not for nausea associated with gastroparesis. Choice D, Loperamide, is an antimotility agent used to manage diarrhea, not nausea or gastric motility issues seen in gastroparesis.

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