ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare professional in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings is indicative of this condition?
- A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
- B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
- C. Severe pain around the eyes
- D. Intraocular pressure 12 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a classic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is often associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent permanent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more indicative of conditions like macular degeneration. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12 mm Hg is within the normal range and is not typical of angle-closure glaucoma.
2. A nurse reviewing a client's medical record notes a new prescription for verifying the trough level of the client's medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Obtain a blood specimen immediately prior to administering the next dose of medication.
- B. Verify that the client has been taking the medication for 24 hours before obtaining a blood specimen.
- C. Ask the client to provide a urine specimen after the next dose of medication.
- D. Administer the medication and obtain a blood specimen 30 minutes later.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To verify the trough levels of a medication accurately, the nurse should obtain a blood specimen immediately before administering the next dose of the medication. The trough level represents the lowest concentration of the medication in the bloodstream, typically right before the next dose is due. This timing ensures an accurate assessment of the drug's concentration in the body at its lowest point, aiding in determining the drug's effectiveness and potential toxicity levels. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for 24 hours would not provide the trough level. Choice C is incorrect as urine specimens are not used to measure trough levels. Choice D is incorrect as obtaining a blood specimen 30 minutes after administering the medication would not reflect the trough level.
3. When assessing a client with chronic Neutropenia receiving Filgrastim, what action should the nurse take to evaluate for an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Assess for bone pain.
- B. Assess for right lower quadrant pain.
- C. Auscultate for crackles in the bases of the lungs.
- D. Auscultate the chest to listen for a heart murmur.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action when assessing a client receiving Filgrastim for chronic Neutropenia is to assess for bone pain. Bone pain is a known dose-related adverse effect of Filgrastim. Acetaminophen or opioid analgesics can be used to manage bone pain if necessary. Assessing for other types of pain, lung crackles, or heart murmurs would not be specific to the adverse effects of Filgrastim.
4. A client is taking lisinopril. Which of the following outcomes indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?
- A. Decreased blood pressure
- B. Increase in HDL cholesterol
- C. Prevention of bipolar manic episodes
- D. Improved sexual function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The therapeutic effect of lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is indicated by a decrease in blood pressure. Lisinopril works by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. Monitoring and achieving a decrease in blood pressure is a key outcome when managing hypertension with lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lisinopril is not intended to increase HDL cholesterol, prevent bipolar manic episodes, or improve sexual function. Therefore, the correct outcome indicating the therapeutic effect of lisinopril is a decrease in blood pressure.
5. When administering an Antiulcer Agent, you should be more cautious when administering it to:
- A. A healthy 27-year-old patient
- B. Patient with renal failure
- C. Elderly patients
- D. Choices B & C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When administering an antiulcer agent, caution is warranted in patients with renal failure due to the potential impact on drug metabolism and excretion. Additionally, elderly patients may be more susceptible to adverse effects from antiulcer agents due to age-related physiological changes. Therefore, it is important to be more cautious when administering antiulcer agents to patients with renal failure and elderly patients. Choice A, a healthy 27-year-old patient, would typically not require as much caution compared to patients with renal failure or elderly patients when administering antiulcer agents. Therefore, choices B & C are the correct options for increased caution.
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