Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?

• A. Name
• B. Dosage
• C. Route
• D. Frequency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The prescription lacks the frequency of medication administration, which is crucial for ensuring appropriate use. In this case, the frequency of when the medication can be taken needs to be clarified with the provider to provide safe and effective care for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.

2. A client has a new diagnosis of Fibromyalgia. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client?

• A. Colchicine
• B. Hydroxychloroquine
• C. Auranofin
• D. Duloxetine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Duloxetine. Duloxetine is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor commonly used to manage fibromyalgia. It helps in reducing pain and improving mood in individuals with this condition. Colchicine (Choice A) is primarily used to treat gout, while Hydroxychloroquine (Choice B) and Auranofin (Choice C) are medications used to manage conditions like rheumatoid arthritis and lupus, not fibromyalgia.

3. A client with Peptic Ulcer Disease who is taking Sucralfate PO has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take an antacid with the sucralfate.
• B. Take sucralfate with a glass of milk.
• C. Allow a 2-hour interval between these medications.
• D. Chew the sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sucralfate can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin. To prevent this interaction, the client should allow a 2-hour interval between taking sucralfate and phenytoin. This interval helps ensure that each medication is absorbed effectively without affecting the other's absorption. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking an antacid with sucralfate, taking sucralfate with a glass of milk, or chewing sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing are not necessary or recommended instructions to prevent the interaction between sucralfate and phenytoin.

4. A client has Diabetes Mellitus, Pulmonary Tuberculosis, and a new prescription for Isoniazid. Which of the following supplements should the nurse expect to administer to prevent an adverse effect of INH?

• A. Ascorbic acid
• B. Pyridoxine
• C. Folic acid
• D. Cyanocobalamin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pyridoxine is administered with Isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy, a common adverse effect of the drug. It is essential to provide this supplement to the client to minimize the risk of developing this adverse effect. Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) is not typically given to prevent INH adverse effects. Folic acid and Cyanocobalamin are not commonly administered with INH for this purpose.

5. A client with Hodgkin's disease is receiving Cyclophosphamide IV. Which medication should be administered concurrently to prevent an adverse effect of Cyclophosphamide?

• A. Uroprotectant agent, such as mesna
• B. Opioid, such as morphine
• C. Loop diuretic, such as furosemide
• D. H1 receptor antagonist, such as diphenhydramine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mesna, an uroprotectant agent, is administered with nitrogen mustard chemotherapy drugs like Cyclophosphamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis, a common adverse effect. Mesna works by binding to and inactivating the toxic metabolites of Cyclophosphamide in the bladder, thereby reducing the risk of bladder toxicity.

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