ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should the healthcare professional monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of heparin?
- A. PT/INR
- B. Platelet count
- C. aPTT
- D. WBC count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct test to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Heparin's action is to prolong the clotting time, and aPTT reflects this effect. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. PT/INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, platelet count assesses for potential thrombocytopenia, and WBC count evaluates for signs of infection or inflammation, not the therapeutic effect of heparin.
2. A client has a new prescription for Captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure weekly.
- C. Notify your provider if you develop a persistent cough.
- D. Avoid using salt substitutes to prevent hyperkalemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to notify the provider if they develop a persistent cough. A persistent cough is a common adverse effect of Captopril and other ACE inhibitors. It is essential for the client to inform their healthcare provider promptly if this side effect occurs, as it may indicate a potentially serious issue that needs medical attention.
3. A drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is considered a ______.
- A. Antidepressant
- B. Protease inhibitor
- C. Beta antagonist
- D. H antagonist
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Drugs ending in -tidine are histamine (H2) receptor antagonists, which block the action of histamine at the H2 receptors, commonly used to reduce stomach acid production. Therefore, the correct answer is an 'H antagonist.' It is essential to be familiar with drug suffixes as they can provide clues to the drug's class and function.
4. Which of the following conditions is not typically treated with Hydrochlorothiazide?
- A. CHF
- B. HTN
- C. Nephritis
- D. Hypercalciuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Nephritis is not commonly treated with Hydrochlorothiazide. Hydrochlorothiazide is primarily used for managing hypertension (HTN) and congestive heart failure (CHF) by reducing blood pressure and fluid retention. It is not a standard treatment for nephritis, which involves inflammation of the kidneys. Hypercalciuria, characterized by excessive calcium excretion in the urine, is not typically treated with Hydrochlorothiazide either.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?
- A. Butorphanol has a greater risk of abuse than morphine.
- B. Butorphanol causes a higher incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
- C. Butorphanol cannot be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
- D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Butorphanol, an opioid agonist/antagonist, can lead to abstinence syndrome in clients who are opioid-dependent. This syndrome may present with symptoms like abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to consider this risk when administering Butorphanol to clients with a history of substance use disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol is less likely to be abused than morphine, causes less respiratory depression than morphine, and can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
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