a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the thera
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should the healthcare professional monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of heparin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct test to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Heparin's action is to prolong the clotting time, and aPTT reflects this effect. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. PT/INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, platelet count assesses for potential thrombocytopenia, and WBC count evaluates for signs of infection or inflammation, not the therapeutic effect of heparin.

2. When providing discharge instructions to a client prescribed Warfarin, which herbal supplement should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: St. John's wort should be avoided by clients taking Warfarin as it can reduce the medication's effectiveness by interacting with its metabolism. While garlic and ginseng are also known to interact with Warfarin, the specific supplement the nurse should instruct the client to avoid in this scenario is St. John's wort. Echinacea, although an herbal supplement, is not typically associated with significant interactions with Warfarin and is not the primary concern in this case.

3. When reviewing a client's health record, a nurse notes a new prescription for Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The nurse should identify this as which type of prescription?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A routine prescription indicates medications to be administered on a regular schedule without a termination date or a specific number of doses. In this case, Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily falls under a routine prescription, meaning the nurse will administer this medication daily until the provider discontinues it. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A 'single' prescription is for a one-time dose, 'stat' prescriptions are for immediate administration, and 'standing' prescriptions are pre-authorized for administration as needed within specified parameters.

4. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling in the lower extremities, as it indicates the onset of edema. Hypertension is typically treated with Nifedipine and is not an adverse effect of the medication. Hyperglycemia and bradycardia are not commonly associated with Nifedipine use. Therefore, the correct adverse effect to monitor for when a client is prescribed Nifedipine is edema.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients who are not protected against Varicella. The healthcare provider should prepare to administer the Varicella vaccine at this time to which of the following clients?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the 32-year-old man who has essential hypertension. Individuals who did not receive two doses of the varicella vaccine earlier in life should be immunized. Essential hypertension is not a contraindication for this vaccine, making it safe to administer to this client. Choice A is incorrect because administering the Varicella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of transmission to the fetus. Choice B is incorrect because a severe allergy to neomycin is a contraindication to the Varicella vaccine, which contains a trace amount of neomycin. Choice C is incorrect because the Varicella vaccine is not recommended for infants under 12 months of age.

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