Nursing Elites

1. What is the antidote for Heparin?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Narcan
• C. Romazicon
• D. Naloxone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots. In cases of overdose or excessive bleeding due to Heparin, protamine sulfate is administered as the specific antidote. Protamine sulfate works by neutralizing Heparin's anticoagulant activity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Narcan (Naloxone) is used to reverse opioid overdose, Romazicon (Flumazenil) is used to reverse benzodiazepine overdose, and Naloxone is also used to reverse opioid overdose but is not the antidote for Heparin.

2. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid taking aspirin while on this medication.
• C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid taking aspirin while on this medication.' Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin and other NSAIDs also affect platelet function and can further increase the risk of bleeding when combined with Clopidogrel. Therefore, it is important for the client to avoid taking aspirin while on this medication to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take Clopidogrel with food, avoid foods high in potassium, or take it at bedtime. The key instruction here is to avoid aspirin to prevent potential bleeding complications.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who is starting therapy with tamoxifen. The healthcare provider should recognize that tamoxifen is contraindicated in which of the following clients?

• A. A client with a history of deep-vein thrombosis
• B. A client with a history of migraine headaches
• C. A client with a history of hypertension
• D. A client with a history of anemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen is contraindicated in clients with a history of thromboembolic events, such as deep-vein thrombosis, due to the increased risk of blood clots. The estrogenic effects of tamoxifen can further increase the risk of thromboembolic events, making it unsafe for individuals with a history of deep-vein thrombosis. Choice B (migraine headaches), Choice C (hypertension), and Choice D (anemia) are not contraindications for tamoxifen therapy. Migraine headaches, hypertension, and anemia do not pose the same risk of adverse effects related to blood clot formation as deep-vein thrombosis does.

4. When educating a client starting a new prescription for simvastatin, which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Report any muscle pain immediately.
• C. Avoid taking the medication with grapefruit juice.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting simvastatin is to report any muscle pain immediately because it could be indicative of rhabdomyolysis, a serious side effect of the medication. This prompt reporting can help prevent further complications and ensure timely medical intervention. Choice A is incorrect because simvastatin can be taken at any time of the day. Choice C is generally true for many medications, but there is no specific interaction between grapefruit juice and simvastatin. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to take simvastatin at bedtime.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. The healthcare professional should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?

• A. 200 mL/hr
• B. 150 mL/hr
• C. 100 mL/hr
• D. 250 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in mL/hr: (Volume in mL / Time in hours) = Flow rate in mL/hr. In this case, (100 mL / 0.5 hr) = 200 mL/hr. The correct calculation is: 100 mL (volume) / 0.5 hr (time) = 200 mL/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 200 mL/hr. Choice B (150 mL/hr), C (100 mL/hr), and D (250 mL/hr) are incorrect as they do not match the calculated flow rate needed for the administration of clindamycin.

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