Nursing Elites

1. What is the antidote for Heparin?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Narcan
• C. Romazicon
• D. Naloxone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots. In cases of overdose or excessive bleeding due to Heparin, protamine sulfate is administered as the specific antidote. Protamine sulfate works by neutralizing Heparin's anticoagulant activity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Narcan (Naloxone) is used to reverse opioid overdose, Romazicon (Flumazenil) is used to reverse benzodiazepine overdose, and Naloxone is also used to reverse opioid overdose but is not the antidote for Heparin.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

3. A client with prostate cancer is receiving leuprolide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Increased testosterone levels
• B. Increased libido
• C. Gynecomastia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for gynecomastia when receiving leuprolide as it can cause decreased testosterone levels, leading to the development of gynecomastia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because leuprolide actually decreases testosterone levels, which would not result in increased testosterone levels or libido. Leuprolide is not associated with hypoglycemia, so monitoring for this is unnecessary in a client receiving this medication.

4. A healthcare provider is teaching the parents of a school-age child about transdermal Methylphenidate. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Apply one patch twice a day.
• B. Leave the patch on for 9 hours.
• C. Apply the patch to the child's waist.
• D. Use the opened tray within 6 months.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering transdermal Methylphenidate, it is important to leave the patch on for 9 hours each day to ensure the medication is effective. This duration allows for proper absorption of the medication through the skin. It is crucial for parents to follow this instruction to achieve the desired therapeutic effect for their child.

5. A client has been prescribed Prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Take this medication at bedtime to reduce drowsiness.
• C. Take this medication in the morning to reduce insomnia.
• D. Avoid sudden changes in position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prednisone is best taken in the morning to reduce the risk of insomnia, a common side effect of corticosteroids. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning aligns with the goal of minimizing the impact of insomnia, which can disrupt sleep patterns and affect overall well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Prednisone with food does not primarily focus on preventing nausea; taking it at bedtime does not primarily reduce drowsiness, and avoiding sudden changes in position is not a specific instruction related to Prednisone use for asthma.

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