a nurse is caring for a client who is taking furosemide for heart failure which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to assess f
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to assess for an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic commonly used in heart failure, can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's serum potassium levels regularly while on Furosemide. Serum calcium, sodium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by Furosemide and are not the primary focus of monitoring for adverse effects of this medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. The nurse should identify that the concurrent use of which of the following medications increases the client's risk of bleeding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen, especially in high doses, can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting the clotting factors dependent on vitamin K, so Vitamin K intake should be consistent but not excessive. Calcium carbonate and ranitidine do not significantly increase the risk of bleeding when used concurrently with Warfarin.

3. A client has a new prescription for Adalimumab for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Based on the route of administration of Adalimumab, which of the following should the nurse plan to monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Adalimumab is administered subcutaneously for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Injection-site reactions such as redness and swelling are common. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the subcutaneous site for redness following the injection to assess for potential adverse effects.

4. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients prescribed Digoxin should monitor their heart rate before each dose. This is essential to identify any potential bradycardia, defined as a heart rate below 60 bpm, which can be a side effect of Digoxin. Any significant changes in heart rate should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of high-potassium foods can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition that can be exacerbated by Digoxin. Choice C is incorrect as taking Digoxin with a full glass of milk is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as black, tarry stools are not an expected side effect of Digoxin.

5. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.

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