a nurse is caring for a client who is taking furosemide for heart failure which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to assess f
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to assess for an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic commonly used in heart failure, can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's serum potassium levels regularly while on Furosemide. Serum calcium, sodium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by Furosemide and are not the primary focus of monitoring for adverse effects of this medication.

2. Why has an ACE inhibitor been prescribed following an MI?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Following a myocardial infarction (MI), ACE inhibitors are commonly prescribed due to their proven benefit in reducing mortality and improving outcomes post-MI. These medications help by decreasing the workload of the heart, preventing remodeling of the heart chambers, and improving survival rates. While ACE inhibitors may have effects on potassium levels, the primary reason for their prescription post-MI is their mortality-reducing properties.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. How many mL/hr should the IV pump be set to deliver?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in mL/hr: (Volume in mL / Time in hours) = Flow rate in mL/hr. In this case, (100 mL / 0.5 hr) = 200 mL/hr. Therefore, the IV pump should be set to deliver 200 mL/hr to administer clindamycin 200 mg over 30 minutes. Choice A is correct because it provides the accurate flow rate needed for the administration of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not calculate the flow rate correctly based on the volume and time specified in the question.

4. A client is taking Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is considered elevated and should be reported to the provider for further assessment and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not directly affected by Spironolactone and do not typically require immediate reporting unless there are other underlying issues or specific instructions for those electrolytes.

5. A client has a new prescription for Omeprazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take this medication before meals.' Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that is most effective in reducing stomach acid production when taken before meals. This timing helps the medication work optimally by inhibiting acid secretion that occurs in response to food intake. Choice B ('Take this medication with food') is incorrect because Omeprazole should be taken before meals. Choice C ('Take this medication at bedtime') is incorrect as the optimal timing is before meals, not at bedtime. Choice D ('Take this medication with antacids') is incorrect because Omeprazole should not be taken with antacids as they can interfere with its absorption.

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