Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to assess for an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Serum potassium.
• B. Serum calcium.
• C. Serum sodium.
• D. Serum magnesium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic commonly used in heart failure, can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's serum potassium levels regularly while on Furosemide. Serum calcium, sodium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by Furosemide and are not the primary focus of monitoring for adverse effects of this medication.

2. When caring for a client receiving treatment with irinotecan, which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hypertension
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Neutropenia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is diarrhea. Irinotecan commonly causes diarrhea as an adverse effect due to its impact on the gastrointestinal tract. Monitoring for diarrhea is essential to prevent dehydration and manage this side effect effectively. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, ototoxicity, and neutropenia are not commonly associated with irinotecan therapy.

3. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. What finding should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving cyclophosphamide, the nurse should monitor for hemorrhagic cystitis, a severe adverse effect caused by bladder irritation. It is essential to watch for signs such as hematuria, dysuria, and urinary frequency, and promptly intervene to prevent further complications. Hypertension (Choice A) is not typically associated with cyclophosphamide use. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common side effect of cyclophosphamide. Ototoxicity (Choice C) is more commonly associated with medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics or high-dose aspirin.

4. A client has a prescription for Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Increase fluid intake.
• C. Expect reddish-orange urine.
• D. Avoid high-protein foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole is to increase fluid intake. This helps prevent crystalluria and kidney stones, which are potential adverse effects of this medication. Adequate hydration is essential to reduce the risk of these complications.

5. Which of the following conditions are not treated with opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone?

• A. Pulmonary Edema
• B. Cough suppression
• C. Sedation
• D. Pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone are primarily used for pain management and cough suppression. Sedation is not a primary indication for these medications.

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