ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to assess for an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Serum potassium.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Serum sodium.
- D. Serum magnesium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic commonly used in heart failure, can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's serum potassium levels regularly while on Furosemide. Serum calcium, sodium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by Furosemide and are not the primary focus of monitoring for adverse effects of this medication.
2. What is the primary action of warfarin as an anticoagulant?
- A. Prevents the formation of blood clots
- B. Dissolves existing blood clots
- C. Dilates coronary arteries
- D. Treats rhythm disturbances
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Prevents the formation of blood clots." Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver. This action reduces the blood's ability to clot, making it effective in preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots; it prevents their formation. Choice C is incorrect because warfarin's primary action is not to dilate coronary arteries. Choice D is incorrect as warfarin is not used to treat rhythm disturbances, but rather to prevent clot formation.
3. When starting therapy with Atenolol, which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its mechanism of action. The nurse should advise the client to monitor their pulse regularly, as a significant decrease may indicate bradycardia, a condition characterized by a slow heart rate.
4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is receiving treatment with carboplatin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional monitor?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Ototoxicity
- C. Hypertension
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The healthcare professional should monitor the client for ototoxicity when receiving carboplatin. Ototoxicity is a known serious adverse effect associated with this medication, characterized by damage to the inner ear structures leading to hearing loss or balance issues. Monitoring for hearing changes and balance problems is crucial to detect ototoxicity early and prevent further complications. Hyperglycemia, hypertension, and bradycardia are not typically associated with carboplatin therapy.
5. A client with HIV is starting therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Ringing in the ears
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequent fatigue.
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