Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking Glipizide to treat Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Cholesterol level.
• B. Hematocrit.
• C. Blood glucose level.
• D. Calcium level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blood glucose level. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level is crucial when taking Glipizide, a medication used to lower blood glucose levels in individuals with Diabetes Mellitus. By monitoring the blood glucose level, the nurse can evaluate the effectiveness of the medication in managing the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of Glipizide in treating Diabetes Mellitus. Cholesterol level, hematocrit, and calcium level may be important for other aspects of the client's health but are not the primary indicators of Glipizide's effectiveness.

2. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely observe the client's lower extremities for any signs of swelling, which could indicate the development of edema. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because Nifedipine is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is unrelated to Nifedipine's common adverse effects. Choice D, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Nifedipine use.

3. Medications classified as angiotensin II receptor agents typically end in?

• A. Sartan
• B. Ase
• C. Olol
• D. Pril

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Angiotensin II receptor agents belong to the drug class called angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs). The generic names of ARBs usually end in -sartan, helping to identify this specific class of medications. Therefore, medications that end in -sartan are likely to be angiotensin II receptor agents. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because drugs ending in -ase (like streptokinase), -olol (like propranolol), and -pril (like lisinopril) typically belong to different drug classes with distinct mechanisms of action.

4. When a client reports urticaria and dyspnea after receiving amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, which medication should be administered first?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Administer albuterol
• C. Administer diphenhydramine
• D. Administer prednisone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing symptoms of a severe allergic reaction. The priority intervention is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine acts quickly to reverse the effects of the allergic reaction and can be life-saving in cases of anaphylaxis. Albuterol is used for bronchodilation and may help with respiratory symptoms but is not the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. Diphenhydramine and prednisone are used for allergic reactions but are not as rapid-acting as epinephrine and should be considered after administering epinephrine in this situation.

5. A client has a new prescription for Labetalol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid sudden discontinuation of the medication.
• C. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client on Labetalol is to avoid sudden discontinuation of the medication. Labetalol is a beta-blocker that, if abruptly stopped, can lead to rebound hypertension and other cardiac issues. It is essential for patients to taper off this medication under medical supervision to prevent adverse effects.

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