Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Lansoprazole?

• A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
• B. Gastritis
• C. Hypertension
• D. Reflux

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to treat conditions related to excessive stomach acid production, such as Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, gastritis, and reflux. However, it is not indicated for the treatment of hypertension, which is managed using antihypertensive medications. Therefore, the correct answer is C: Hypertension.

2. When administering the drug lithium, what is one important side effect to watch for?

• A. Anaphylaxis
• B. Seizures
• C. Angioedema
• D. Pulmonary Edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering lithium, it is crucial to watch for the side effect of angioedema. Angioedema is a potential adverse reaction associated with lithium therapy, characterized by rapid swelling beneath the skin, often around the eyes and lips. Monitoring for this side effect is essential to promptly address and manage any signs of angioedema that may occur during lithium treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because anaphylaxis, seizures, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated side effects of lithium administration.

3. A client informs the nurse that she has difficulty swallowing tablets and struggles with liquid or chewable medications due to taste. What medication should the nurse request a prescription for when preparing to administer Penicillin V to treat the client's streptococcal infection?

• A. Fosfomycin
• B. Amoxicillin
• C. Nafcillin
• D. Cefaclor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nafcillin is an appropriate alternative within the penicillin class for clients who have difficulty swallowing tablets or struggle with liquid or chewable medications. It is available for intramuscular (IM) or intravenous (IV) administration, offering options beyond oral formulations. Fosfomycin, Amoxicillin, and Cefaclor are not suitable alternatives for Penicillin V in this scenario as they belong to different classes of antibiotics and may not be as effective in treating streptococcal infections.

4. When preparing to administer IV Acyclovir for Herpes Zoster, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Infuse the medication over 1 hour.
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes during infusion.
• C. Administer a stool softener.
• D. Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours during infusion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to infuse IV Acyclovir over at least 1 hour to prevent nephrotoxicity. Rapid infusion can lead to adverse effects, so a slow infusion rate is crucial for patient safety. Monitoring blood pressure, administering a stool softener, or monitoring blood glucose levels are not directly related to the administration of IV Acyclovir for Herpes Zoster.

5. A client is receiving Enoxaparin for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Massage the injection site after administration.
• B. Administer the medication intramuscularly.
• C. Administer the medication into the subcutaneous tissue.
• D. Administer the medication into the deltoid muscle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enoxaparin, a medication used for preventing deep vein thrombosis, should be administered into the subcutaneous tissue, typically in the abdomen. Administering the medication intramuscularly (Choice B) or into the deltoid muscle (Choice D) is incorrect because Enoxaparin is specifically formulated for subcutaneous administration. Massaging the injection site after administration (Choice A) is contraindicated as it may lead to tissue damage and affect the absorption of the medication. Therefore, the correct action is to administer the medication into the subcutaneous tissue as directed.

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