Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking Propylthiouracil. For which of the following adverse effects of this medication should the nurse monitor?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Insomnia
• C. Heat intolerance
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propylthiouracil is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism. One of the adverse effects of Propylthiouracil is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Since the medication works by decreasing thyroid hormone production, it can lead to hypothyroidism as a side effect, causing bradycardia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of bradycardia while taking Propylthiouracil. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because insomnia, heat intolerance, and weight loss are not typically associated adverse effects of Propylthiouracil.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available medication is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 1 tablet
• B. 2 tablets
• C. 3 tablets
• D. 4 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the correct dosage of Haloperidol.

3. A client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of Fluoxetine for PTSD. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?

• A. You may experience a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication.
• B. You should take this medication in the evening to help promote sleep.
• C. You may experience fewer urinary adverse effects if you urinate just before taking this medication.
• D. You should wear sunglasses when outdoors due to the light sensitivity caused by this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: One of the potential adverse effects of fluoxetine and other SSRIs is a decreased libido, which can impact intimacy. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client about this possible side effect to promote awareness and understanding of the medication's effects.

4. A client has a new prescription for Filgrastim. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid taking this medication with orange juice.
• C. Report bone pain to your healthcare provider.
• D. Expect a persistent cough while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report bone pain to your healthcare provider.' Filgrastim is known to cause bone pain as a common side effect. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to report any bone pain to their healthcare provider to monitor for potential complications or the need for further management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking Filgrastim with food, avoiding it with orange juice, and expecting a persistent cough are not relevant instructions associated with this medication.

5. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Captopril
• C. Ranolazine
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients who develop tachycardia, such as in the case of reflex tachycardia induced by Isosorbide Mononitrate, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario. Furosemide (Choice A) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema, not for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor primarily used for hypertension and heart failure, not for reflex tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used for chronic angina but does not specifically address reflex tachycardia.

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