a nurse is reviewing the health history of a client who is starting therapy with tamoxifen the nurse should recognize that tamoxifen is contraindicat
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who is starting therapy with tamoxifen. The healthcare provider should recognize that tamoxifen is contraindicated in which of the following clients?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen is contraindicated in clients with a history of thromboembolic events, such as deep-vein thrombosis, due to the increased risk of blood clots forming and leading to serious complications like pulmonary embolism. Clients with a history of deep-vein thrombosis are at a higher risk of recurrent thromboembolic events when taking tamoxifen, making it unsafe for such individuals. Choices B, C, and D are not contraindications for tamoxifen therapy, as migraine headaches, hypertension, and anemia do not directly interact with tamoxifen's mechanism of action or pose significant risks when used together.

2. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia can result in muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias, making it essential for the nurse to monitor potassium levels closely when a client is on Spironolactone. Choice B, Hypoglycemia, is incorrect because Spironolactone is not known to cause low blood sugar levels. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, and Choice D, Hyponatremia, are also incorrect as Spironolactone is not associated with decreased levels of calcium or sodium.

3. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

4. A client has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue ceftriaxone if a rash develops, as it could indicate an allergic reaction that needs to be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cough development, oral administration, and yellow urine are not typically associated with ceftriaxone use and are not critical information that the nurse needs to emphasize in this scenario.

5. A client is receiving treatment with carboplatin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Carboplatin is known to cause ototoxicity as a serious adverse effect. It is essential for the nurse to monitor the client for any signs or symptoms of hearing loss or other auditory issues to address them promptly. Incorrect Choices Rationale: A) Hyperglycemia is not a common side effect associated with carboplatin. C) Hypertension is not a typical finding to monitor for specifically related to carboplatin treatment. D) Bradycardia is not a primary concern when monitoring a client on carboplatin.

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