a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for atenolol which of the following instructions should the nurse i
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your heart rate regularly.' Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate). Monitoring the heart rate regularly is crucial to promptly detect any significant decreases. This allows for timely intervention and adjustment of the medication regimen if needed, helping to prevent adverse effects associated with bradycardia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning does not address the need for heart rate monitoring. Avoiding foods high in potassium is more relevant for medications like ACE inhibitors or potassium-sparing diuretics. Increasing fluid intake is not directly related to the use of Atenolol.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. The healthcare professional should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in mL/hr: (Volume in mL / Time in hours) = Flow rate in mL/hr. In this case, (100 mL / 0.5 hr) = 200 mL/hr. The correct calculation is: 100 mL (volume) / 0.5 hr (time) = 200 mL/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 200 mL/hr. Choice B (150 mL/hr), C (100 mL/hr), and D (250 mL/hr) are incorrect as they do not match the calculated flow rate needed for the administration of clindamycin.

3. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding. The client should monitor for any signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, and report them promptly to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B is incorrect because Clopidogrel can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increased urination is not a common side effect of Clopidogrel. Choice D is incorrect as taking Clopidogrel with an antacid may reduce its effectiveness.

4. A client has a new prescription for Alendronate to treat osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take Alendronate with a full glass of water after rising in the morning. This helps reduce the risk of esophageal irritation, as the medication can cause irritation if not taken correctly. Taking it before bedtime (choice C) can increase the risk of irritation as the individual lies down. Lying down after taking the medication (choice B) can also lead to esophageal irritation. Crushing the tablet (choice D) is not recommended as Alendronate should be taken whole with a full glass of water.

5. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dopamine is a medication used in shock to increase cardiac output and improve renal perfusion. An increase in urine output indicates that the medication is effective as it shows improved renal perfusion and kidney function, which are essential for managing shock effectively. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.

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