ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. Monitor your heart rate regularly.
- C. Avoid consuming foods high in potassium.
- D. Increase your fluid intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your heart rate regularly.' Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate). Monitoring the heart rate regularly is crucial to promptly detect any significant decreases. This allows for timely intervention and adjustment of the medication regimen if needed, helping to prevent adverse effects associated with bradycardia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning does not address the need for heart rate monitoring. Avoiding foods high in potassium is more relevant for medications like ACE inhibitors or potassium-sparing diuretics. Increasing fluid intake is not directly related to the use of Atenolol.
2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication before bed.
- B. Monitor for increased blood pressure.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Monitor for leg cramps.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for leg cramps.' Leg cramps may indicate hypokalemia, an adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide, and should be reported to the provider. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is usually taken in the morning to avoid nocturia. Choice B is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that helps lower blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide can be taken with or without food.
3. A client in an acute mental health facility is experiencing withdrawal from Opioid use and has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Administer the clonidine on the prescribed schedule.
- B. Provide ice chips at the client's bedside.
- C. Educate the client on the effects of clonidine.
- D. Obtain baseline vital signs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This step is crucial in assessing the client's current physiological status and establishing a reference point for monitoring the effects of Clonidine. Administering the medication, providing ice chips, and educating the client are important tasks but assessing the client's vital signs takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and well-being during withdrawal management.
4. A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.
- A. H
- B. ACE inhibitor
- C. Antifungal
- D. Beta agonist
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Drugs with names ending in -pril are classified as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. These medications are commonly used to manage conditions like high blood pressure, heart failure, and diabetic kidney disease by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.
5. A client is starting therapy with raloxifene. Which adverse effect should the client monitor for as instructed by the nurse?
- A. Leg cramps
- B. Hot flashes
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Hair loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hot flashes are a common adverse effect associated with raloxifene therapy. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Hot flashes are a well-known side effect of SERMs due to their estrogen-like effects on the body. Leg cramps, urinary frequency, and hair loss are not typically associated with raloxifene therapy. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to monitor for hot flashes as part of the medication education.
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