ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023
1. A client with cirrhosis is about to receive a dose of lactulose. The client questions the need for the medication, stating they are not constipated. The nurse should explain that lactulose is used in cirrhosis to reduce levels of which component in the bloodstream?
- A. Glucose
- B. Ammonia
- C. Potassium
- D. Bicarbonate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Lactulose is administered to clients with cirrhosis to lower blood ammonia levels, thus aiding in the prevention of hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels in cirrhosis can lead to cognitive impairment and hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, the correct answer is B (Ammonia). Glucose (Choice A) is not the component targeted by lactulose in cirrhosis. Potassium (Choice C) and Bicarbonate (Choice D) are not directly affected by lactulose administration in cirrhosis.
2. A client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth. The healthcare provider should plan to monitor the client's urine for which of the following?
- A. Bilirubin
- B. Protein
- C. Potassium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, monitoring calcium levels in the urine is crucial. Excessive calcium excretion can occur in the urine of clients taking Somatropin, increasing the risk of renal calculi. Therefore, monitoring calcium levels is essential to assess for potential kidney stone formation. Bilirubin, protein, and potassium are not specifically monitored in the urine of clients taking Somatropin for growth stimulation.
3. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods?
- A. Salt substitutes
- B. Apples
- C. Chicken
- D. Bananas
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. The client should avoid salt substitutes because they often contain potassium, which could lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia, or high levels of potassium in the blood, is a potential side effect of spironolactone, and ingesting additional potassium from salt substitutes can exacerbate this risk.
4. An adolescent client has a new prescription for Clomipramine for OCD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to minimize an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Wear sunglasses when outdoors.
- B. Check your temperature daily.
- C. Take this medication in the morning.
- D. Add extra calories to your diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To minimize the adverse effect of photophobia associated with Clomipramine, the client should be advised to wear sunglasses when outdoors. Clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) known to cause anticholinergic effects like photophobia, which can be reduced by protecting the eyes with sunglasses when exposed to bright light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because checking temperature daily, taking the medication in the morning, and adding extra calories to the diet are not specifically related to minimizing the adverse effect of photophobia caused by Clomipramine.
5. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's health record notes a new prescription for Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?
- A. Single
- B. Stat
- C. Routine
- D. Standing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A routine prescription indicates that the medication is to be administered on a regular schedule, typically daily, without a specified termination date or a specific number of doses. In this case, Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily is to be given regularly until the healthcare provider decides to discontinue it. This type of prescription is common for medications that are part of the client's ongoing treatment regimen. The other choices are incorrect: 'Single' does not provide information about the frequency or duration of administration, 'Stat' indicates an urgent, one-time administration, and 'Standing' refers to a prescription that is automatically renewed without the need for a new order for each administration.
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