a nurse is teaching a client who has ocd and has a new prescription for paroxetine which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client with OCD has a new prescription for Paroxetine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Paroxetine, an antidepressant commonly used for OCD, typically takes 1 to 4 weeks before the client experiences the full therapeutic benefit. Therefore, informing the client that it may take several weeks before feeling the medication's effects is crucial to manage expectations and ensure compliance with the treatment plan. Choice B is incorrect because Paroxetine is usually taken in the morning due to its activating effects and may cause insomnia if taken before bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because Paroxetine should be taken regularly as prescribed, not just when experiencing obsessive urges. Choice D is incorrect because although weight gain can be a side effect of Paroxetine, it is not a priority instruction compared to the delayed onset of therapeutic effects.

2. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Capecitabine is known to cause neutropenia as a common adverse effect due to bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections and requires close monitoring to prevent complications. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use, making them incorrect choices.

3. A client has a new prescription for Captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to notify the provider if they develop a persistent cough. A persistent cough is a common adverse effect of Captopril and other ACE inhibitors. It is essential for the client to inform their healthcare provider promptly if this side effect occurs, as it may indicate a potentially serious issue that needs medical attention.

4. A client has been prescribed Aspirin for prevention of cardiovascular disease. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A decrease in episodes of angina indicates that Aspirin is effectively preventing the formation of clots that could lead to cardiovascular events. Angina is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually due to coronary artery disease. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, thereby reducing the risk of clot formation in the arteries. Improvement in angina symptoms suggests that the medication is successfully preventing clot-related complications in the cardiovascular system. Monitoring and recognizing a decrease in angina episodes can be a valuable indicator of the medication's efficacy in preventing cardiovascular events. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decrease in troponin levels, a regular heart rhythm, or stable blood pressure, while important parameters, do not directly reflect the effectiveness of Aspirin in preventing cardiovascular events through antiplatelet action.

5. A client presents in the Emergency Department with a suspected MI. Which medication should NOT be given as soon as possible?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the setting of a suspected myocardial infarction (MI), the priority medications to administer as soon as possible include aspirin (ASA) and possibly morphine to manage pain and anxiety. Clopidogrel (Plavix) is not typically administered immediately in the emergency setting for MI management. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is indicated after aspirin administration and stabilization of the patient. Therefore, in this scenario, clopidogrel should NOT be given as a first-line medication for a suspected MI.

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