Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Iron supplements. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with a glass of milk.
• B. Avoid taking the medication with orange juice.
• C. Increase fiber intake to prevent constipation.
• D. Expect stools to be bright red.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Increase fiber intake to prevent constipation.' Iron supplements commonly cause constipation as a side effect. Increasing fiber intake can help alleviate this issue by promoting regular bowel movements and preventing constipation. Choice A is incorrect as iron absorption is hindered when taken with milk. Choice B is not directly related to iron supplements. Choice D is incorrect as iron supplements do not typically cause bright red stools.

2. When administering subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of Enoxaparin 40 mg/0.4 mL to an adult client following hip arthroplasty, what action should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Expel any air bubbles from the prefilled syringe before injecting.
• B. Insert the needle completely into the client's tissue.
• C. Administer the injection in the client's thigh.
• D. Aspirate carefully after inserting the needle into the client's skin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering enoxaparin via a prefilled syringe for deep subcutaneous injection, the nurse should insert the needle completely into the client's tissue. This action ensures proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous layer, promoting optimal therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to expel air bubbles from a prefilled syringe. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin is typically administered in the abdomen for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous injections to avoid trauma or damage to tissues.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients who are not protected against Varicella. The healthcare provider should prepare to administer the Varicella vaccine at this time to which of the following clients?

• A. 24-year-old woman in the third trimester of pregnancy
• B. 12-year-old child who has a severe allergy to neomycin
• C. 2-month-old infant who has no health problems
• D. 32-year-old man who has essential hypertension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the 32-year-old man who has essential hypertension. Individuals who did not receive two doses of the varicella vaccine earlier in life should be immunized. Essential hypertension is not a contraindication for this vaccine, making it safe to administer to this client. Choice A is incorrect because administering the Varicella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of transmission to the fetus. Choice B is incorrect because a severe allergy to neomycin is a contraindication to the Varicella vaccine, which contains a trace amount of neomycin. Choice C is incorrect because the Varicella vaccine is not recommended for infants under 12 months of age.

4. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
• B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function, potentially due to Furosemide therapy. This finding can suggest inadequate renal perfusion and impaired drug clearance, necessitating immediate reporting to prevent further complications like electrolyte imbalances and worsening heart failure. Choice A: Weight loss may be expected in heart failure patients due to fluid retention, but it is not an immediate concern. Choice B: A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is slightly low but not a priority compared to the indication of kidney dysfunction. Choice C: A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the normal range, so it does not require immediate reporting.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

• A. Urinary retention
• B. Tachypnea
• C. Hypertension
• D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

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