a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for iron supplements which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client has a new prescription for Iron supplements. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Increase fiber intake to prevent constipation.' Iron supplements commonly cause constipation as a side effect. Increasing fiber intake can help alleviate this issue by promoting regular bowel movements and preventing constipation. Choice A is incorrect as iron absorption is hindered when taken with milk. Choice B is not directly related to iron supplements. Choice D is incorrect as iron supplements do not typically cause bright red stools.

2. When administering Lithium to a patient, what is a life-threatening side effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is being treated with Lithium, a life-threatening side effect to watch out for is seizures. Lithium can lower the seizure threshold, increasing the risk of seizures. Seizures are serious and necessitate prompt medical intervention to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Erythema, which is redness of the skin, is not a common life-threatening side effect of Lithium. Pancreatitis can be a side effect of Lithium, but it is not typically life-threatening. Headache is a common side effect of Lithium, but it is not considered life-threatening.

3. When caring for a client prescribed warfarin, which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct laboratory test to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin is the PT/INR. Warfarin affects blood clotting, and the PT/INR levels indicate the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Therefore, monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and is protected from potential complications related to clotting. Choice A (aPTT) is incorrect because while it measures the clotting time, it is not the preferred test for monitoring warfarin therapy. Choice B (Platelet count) is incorrect as it assesses the number of platelets and not the medication's therapeutic effect. Choice C (BUN) is unrelated to monitoring the effects of warfarin therapy and is primarily used to assess kidney function.

4. A drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is considered a ______.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Drugs ending in -tidine are histamine (H2) receptor antagonists, which block the action of histamine at the H2 receptors, commonly used to reduce stomach acid production. Therefore, the correct answer is an 'H antagonist.' It is essential to be familiar with drug suffixes as they can provide clues to the drug's class and function.

5. A client with a history of migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which of the following findings in the client history should be reported to the provider by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a first-degree heart block due to its negative chronotropic properties that can further slow the heart rate. This can worsen conduction through the atrioventricular node, potentially leading to heart block progression. Therefore, the nurse should report the finding of a first-degree heart block to the provider before initiating Propranolol therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for Propranolol therapy. A prior myocardial infarction, taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, or using an SSRI for depression do not directly impact the initiation of Propranolol therapy in a client with a history of migraine headaches.

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