ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client is receiving treatment with vincristine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Neurotoxicity
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neurotoxicity. Vincristine is known to cause neurotoxicity as an adverse effect due to its impact on the nervous system. Monitoring for neurotoxicity is crucial to detect any signs early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia is not a typical finding associated with vincristine. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy but is not directly related to vincristine. Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of vincristine.
2. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Edema
- B. Constipation
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Imatinib is known to cause edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of fluid retention, such as swelling of the extremities or weight gain. Edema can indicate potential complications and requires prompt intervention to prevent further issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with imatinib use. Constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not commonly reported adverse effects of imatinib therapy.
3. A client has a new prescription for Metoprolol to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Stop taking the medication if your heart rate is below 70/min.
- B. Take the medication with food.
- C. Avoid sudden changes in position.
- D. Limit your sodium intake while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Metoprolol, a medication used to treat hypertension, is to avoid sudden changes in position. Metoprolol can cause orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when moving from lying down to standing up, leading to dizziness and falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these adverse effects and promotes safety.
4. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL
- B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
- C. Dyspnea
- D. Bilateral equal pupil size
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, which is an adverse effect of the medication. The nurse should promptly notify the provider, discontinue the Mannitol, and initiate appropriate interventions to address the dyspnea and monitor the client's condition closely. Choice A, Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL, is within normal limits and not directly related to Mannitol administration. Choice B, Urine output of 40 mL/hr, could indicate decreased renal perfusion, but it is not the most critical finding compared to dyspnea. Choice D, Bilateral equal pupil size, is a normal neurological finding and not directly related to Mannitol therapy.
5. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take sucralfate with meals.
- B. Take sucralfate 1 hr before meals.
- C. Take sucralfate with antacids.
- D. Take sucralfate 2 hours after meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for taking sucralfate is 1 hour before meals. This timing allows sucralfate to effectively coat the stomach lining and provide a protective barrier against gastric acid, helping to prevent ulcers.
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