a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving treatment with vincristine which of the following findings should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client is receiving treatment with vincristine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neurotoxicity. Vincristine is known to cause neurotoxicity as an adverse effect due to its impact on the nervous system. Monitoring for neurotoxicity is crucial to detect any signs early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia is not a typical finding associated with vincristine. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy but is not directly related to vincristine. Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of vincristine.

2. When preparing to administer IV Acyclovir for Herpes Zoster, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to infuse IV Acyclovir over at least 1 hour to prevent nephrotoxicity. Rapid infusion can lead to adverse effects, so a slow infusion rate is crucial for patient safety. Monitoring blood pressure, administering a stool softener, or monitoring blood glucose levels are not directly related to the administration of IV Acyclovir for Herpes Zoster.

3. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Clopidogrel, an antiplatelet medication, the nurse should instruct them to avoid taking aspirin or other NSAIDs. This is because both medications can increase the risk of bleeding when taken together, potentially leading to serious health complications. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to follow this instruction to ensure their safety and well-being while on Clopidogrel. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Clopidogrel with food, avoiding foods high in potassium, or taking the medication at bedtime are not specific instructions related to the safe use of Clopidogrel and do not address the potential interaction with aspirin, which is essential for the client's well-being.

4. A client is reviewing a new prescription for Terbutaline with a history of preterm labor. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client should report increasing intensity, frequency, or duration of contractions to the provider as these are signs of preterm labor. Monitoring contractions is crucial for the management of preterm labor and the safety of both the client and the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing activity, fluid intake, or assuming the medication will prevent preterm labor do not address the essential need to report changes in contractions, which are a vital sign of potential complications in preterm labor.

5. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored by the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. It should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the therapeutic range of heparin is achieved to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Choice A (PT) is incorrect as it is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C (INR) is also incorrect as it is primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D (Platelet count) is not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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