ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client is receiving treatment with vincristine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Neurotoxicity
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neurotoxicity. Vincristine is known to cause neurotoxicity as an adverse effect due to its impact on the nervous system. Monitoring for neurotoxicity is crucial to detect any signs early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia is not a typical finding associated with vincristine. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy but is not directly related to vincristine. Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of vincristine.
2. When educating a client who has a prescription for Levothyroxine, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Take this medication with food.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Take this medication with antacids.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Levothyroxine is on an empty stomach. This helps to enhance the absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Consuming it with food or antacids can impede its absorption, leading to decreased efficacy.
3. When providing teaching to a client starting therapy with trastuzumab, which finding should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of trastuzumab. Monitoring and early reporting of respiratory symptoms like dyspnea are essential to prevent further complications and ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with trastuzumab therapy and are not priority symptoms that require immediate reporting for this specific medication.
4. When discussing immunizations, which vaccine series is typically completed before a child's first birthday?
- A. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
- B. Meningococcal conjugate vaccine
- C. Varicella vaccine
- D. Rotavirus vaccine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rotavirus vaccine. The rotavirus vaccine series is usually completed before a child's first birthday. It is given to infants in a series of doses starting at 2 months of age and must be completed by 8 months of age. This vaccine helps protect against severe diarrhea and vomiting caused by rotavirus infection, which is common in infants and young children. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, Meningococcal conjugate vaccine, and Varicella vaccine are not typically completed before a child's first birthday.
5. A client with a history of migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which of the following findings in the client history should be reported to the provider by the nurse?
- A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
- B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
- C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
- D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a first-degree heart block due to its negative chronotropic properties that can further slow the heart rate. This can worsen conduction through the atrioventricular node, potentially leading to heart block progression. Therefore, the nurse should report the finding of a first-degree heart block to the provider before initiating Propranolol therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for Propranolol therapy. A prior myocardial infarction, taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, or using an SSRI for depression do not directly impact the initiation of Propranolol therapy in a client with a history of migraine headaches.
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