ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with Graves' disease is being taught about her prescribed medications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of Propranolol in the treatment of Graves' disease?
- A. Propranolol helps increase blood flow to my thyroid gland.
- B. Propranolol is used to prevent excess glucose in my blood.
- C. Propranolol will decrease my tremors and fast heart rate.
- D. Propranolol promotes a decrease in thyroid hormone in my body.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol is a beta-adrenergic antagonist that helps decrease heart rate and control tremors in individuals with Graves' disease. It does not increase blood flow to the thyroid gland (choice A), prevent excess glucose in the blood (choice B), or directly decrease thyroid hormone levels in the body (choice D). Propranolol's primary role in Graves' disease is to alleviate symptoms like tremors and fast heart rate by blocking the effects of excessive thyroid hormone, rather than reducing the actual levels of thyroid hormone in the body.
2. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan, and a nurse is providing discharge teaching. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid potassium-rich foods.
- C. Expect to feel drowsy.
- D. Monitor your blood pressure daily.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring blood pressure daily is crucial for clients taking Valsartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, to ensure effective management of hypertension. Valsartan helps lower blood pressure by relaxing blood vessels, and regular monitoring helps track the medication's effectiveness and any potential side effects. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Valsartan does not need to be taken with food, avoiding potassium-rich foods is not specifically required for this medication, and feeling drowsy is not a common side effect of Valsartan.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of digoxin?
- A. Constipation
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Blurred vision is a common adverse effect of digoxin and can indicate toxicity. Monitoring for visual changes is essential to prevent serious complications in clients taking digoxin.
4. When educating a client with a new prescription for Amlodipine, which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Increase your intake of dairy products.
- B. Avoid driving until you see how the medication affects you.
- C. Stop taking the medication if you develop a dry cough.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid driving until they understand the medication's effects. Amlodipine can cause dizziness, making it unsafe to drive until the client knows how the medication affects them. This instruction promotes client safety and prevents potential accidents due to medication side effects.
5. A client in a critical care unit is postoperative following a right pneumonectomy. After extubation from the ventilator, in which of the following positions should the client be placed?
- A. Prone
- B. On the nonoperative side
- C. Sims'
- D. Semi-Fowler's
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position is crucial for optimal ventilation. This position helps improve lung expansion on the remaining side, facilitating better oxygenation and preventing complications like atelectasis. Placing the client prone, on the nonoperative side, or in Sims' position would not provide the same respiratory benefits post-pneumonectomy.
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