ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with Graves' disease is being taught about her prescribed medications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of Propranolol in the treatment of Graves' disease?
- A. Propranolol helps increase blood flow to my thyroid gland.
- B. Propranolol is used to prevent excess glucose in my blood.
- C. Propranolol will decrease my tremors and fast heart rate.
- D. Propranolol promotes a decrease in thyroid hormone in my body.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol is a beta-adrenergic antagonist that helps decrease heart rate and control tremors in individuals with Graves' disease. It does not increase blood flow to the thyroid gland (choice A), prevent excess glucose in the blood (choice B), or directly decrease thyroid hormone levels in the body (choice D). Propranolol's primary role in Graves' disease is to alleviate symptoms like tremors and fast heart rate by blocking the effects of excessive thyroid hormone, rather than reducing the actual levels of thyroid hormone in the body.
2. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the healthcare professional administer safely to this client?
- A. Varicella vaccine
- B. Rubella vaccine
- C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
- D. Measles vaccine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During pregnancy, it is safe for women to receive the inactivated influenza vaccine, which is recommended by healthcare providers to protect pregnant individuals from influenza. Vaccination with inactivated influenza vaccine during pregnancy not only provides protection to the pregnant individual but also confers passive immunity to the newborn during the vulnerable early months of life. The Varicella, Rubella, and Measles vaccines are live vaccines and are contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of transmission of the live virus to the fetus, which could potentially cause harm.
3. A client prescribed Warfarin is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which of the following herbal supplements should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. St. John's wort
- B. Echinacea
- C. Garlic
- D. Ginseng
Correct answer: A
Rationale: St. John's wort can reduce the effectiveness of Warfarin by interacting with its metabolism pathways, potentially leading to decreased anticoagulant effects. Therefore, clients on Warfarin therapy should avoid St. John's wort. While echinacea, garlic, and ginseng are also herbal supplements that can interact with Warfarin, St. John's wort is particularly known for its significant impact on Warfarin metabolism. Echinacea may increase the risk of bleeding when taken with Warfarin, garlic may potentiate the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin, and ginseng may also increase the risk of bleeding. However, St. John's wort is the most crucial to avoid due to its significant impact on Warfarin metabolism.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for Metformin to treat type 2 diabetes. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Hemoglobin A1C of 7.5%
- B. Creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dL
- C. BUN level of 18 mg/dL
- D. Liver function tests showing AST of 50 units/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Elevated AST levels in liver function tests should be reported to the provider when a client is prescribed Metformin due to the potential risk of hepatotoxicity associated with the medication. Elevated Hemoglobin A1C (choice A), Creatinine level within normal range (choice B), and BUN level within normal range (choice C) are not directly concerning when initiating Metformin therapy.
5. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- C. You should take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed furosemide is to take the medication in the morning. Furosemide, a diuretic, is best taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, which is excessive urination at night. Taking it earlier in the day can help reduce disruptions to sleep patterns. Therefore, advising the client to take furosemide in the morning is crucial for optimal therapeutic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, and does not mandate limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
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