Nursing Elites

1. A client with Graves' disease is being taught about her prescribed medications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of Propranolol in the treatment of Graves' disease?

• A. Propranolol helps increase blood flow to my thyroid gland.
• B. Propranolol is used to prevent excess glucose in my blood.
• C. Propranolol will decrease my tremors and fast heart rate.
• D. Propranolol promotes a decrease in thyroid hormone in my body.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol is a beta-adrenergic antagonist that helps decrease heart rate and control tremors in individuals with Graves' disease. It does not increase blood flow to the thyroid gland (choice A), prevent excess glucose in the blood (choice B), or directly decrease thyroid hormone levels in the body (choice D). Propranolol's primary role in Graves' disease is to alleviate symptoms like tremors and fast heart rate by blocking the effects of excessive thyroid hormone, rather than reducing the actual levels of thyroid hormone in the body.

2. A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. If the medication causes an upset stomach, take an antacid at the same time.
• B. Increase your daily fluid intake while taking this medication.
• C. This medication can cause photophobia, so avoid direct sunlight exposure.
• D. You should report any tendon discomfort you experience while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tendon discomfort is a potential side effect of ciprofloxacin that can lead to tendon rupture and should be reported immediately to prevent serious complications. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial for patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Taking an antacid with ciprofloxacin can interfere with its absorption. B) Increasing fluid intake is generally a good recommendation but not specifically related to the side effects of ciprofloxacin. C) Photophobia is not a common side effect of ciprofloxacin; therefore, avoiding direct sunlight exposure is not necessary.

3. A patient is receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis and begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Vitamin K1
• B. Atropine
• C. Protamine
• D. Calcium gluconate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Protamine is the antidote for heparin, as it reverses its anticoagulant effects. In cases of heparin overdose or if there is excessive bleeding, administering protamine can quickly neutralize the effects of heparin, helping to prevent further bleeding complications.

4. Which of the following is not a side effect of the ACE Inhibitor (Captopril)?

• A. Rash
• B. Angioedema
• C. Cough
• D. Congestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Congestion is not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors such as Captopril. ACE inhibitors are known to cause a dry, persistent cough due to bradykinin accumulation, rash, and angioedema, but congestion is not typically listed as a side effect.

5. A client in the emergency department has Benzodiazepine toxicity due to an overdose. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

• A. Administer flumazenil.
• B. Identify the client's level of orientation.
• C. Infuse IV fluids.
• D. Prepare the client for gastric lavage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a client presents with Benzodiazepine toxicity, the priority action for the nurse is to assess the client. By identifying the client's level of orientation, the nurse can gather crucial information about the client's mental status, which is essential for determining the appropriate care and interventions needed. Administering flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines but should be based on a comprehensive assessment. Infusing IV fluids and preparing for gastric lavage may be necessary interventions but should follow a thorough assessment of the client's condition to ensure proper prioritization of care.

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