Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

• A. Butorphanol has a lower risk of abuse than morphine.
• B. Butorphanol causes a lower incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
• C. Butorphanol can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
• D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.

2. A client has a new prescription for Pancrelipase for chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following instructions should be included by the nurse?

• A. Take the medication with meals and snacks.
• B. Chew the tablet thoroughly before swallowing.
• C. Take the medication 1 hour before meals.
• D. Expect the stool to be yellow.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Pancrelipase is to take it with meals and snacks to aid in the digestion of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates. This helps optimize the effectiveness of the medication in managing chronic pancreatitis. Choice B is incorrect because Pancrelipase should not be chewed but swallowed whole. Choice C is incorrect as the medication should be taken with meals. Choice D is incorrect because while Pancrelipase can cause stool changes, yellow stool is not an expected outcome.

3. A healthcare professional is about to administer Propranolol to a patient. The healthcare professional takes the patient's apical pulse and documents it as 58 bpm. How should the healthcare professional proceed?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed
• B. Administer half of the normal dose
• C. Consider the extended-release form of the medication
• D. Withhold administration of the medication and notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient's apical pulse is 58 bpm, it is below the normal range. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can further lower the heart rate. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider to evaluate the patient's condition. Administering Propranolol in this situation can exacerbate bradycardia, leading to serious complications. Choosing to administer the medication as prescribed (Choice A) can put the patient at risk. Administering half of the normal dose (Choice B) without healthcare provider guidance is not appropriate in this case. Considering the extended-release form of the medication (Choice C) does not address the immediate concern of bradycardia and is not the best course of action.

4. What is pharmacodynamics?

• A. The medical reference summarizing standards of drug purity, strength, and directions for synthesis
• B. The drug's actions at receptor sites and the physiological, chemical, and behavioral effects produced by these actions
• C. The maximum response that a drug can produce
• D. Movements of the drugs throughout the body

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pharmacodynamics refers to the drug's actions at receptor sites and the physiological, chemical, and behavioral effects produced by these actions. It involves understanding how drugs interact with the body at the molecular level to produce their effects, including mechanisms of action, receptor binding, and downstream physiological responses. Choice A is incorrect because it describes pharmacopeia, which is a reference book containing standards for drugs. Choice C refers to efficacy, which is the maximum effect a drug can produce. Choice D describes pharmacokinetics, which focuses on the movement of drugs within the body.

5. A client has a new prescription for Aspirin for the prevention of myocardial infarction. Which of the following findings should be identified as an adverse effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Bruising
• C. Dizziness
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bruising is an adverse effect to be monitored when a client is prescribed Aspirin for the prevention of myocardial infarction due to its association with increased bleeding risk. Aspirin's antiplatelet effect can lead to bruising and other signs of bleeding, necessitating close observation to prevent complications. Nausea, dizziness, and dry mouth are not typically recognized adverse effects of Aspirin therapy for myocardial infarction prevention.

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