Nursing Elites

1. When teaching parents of a school-age child about transdermal Methylphenidate, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Apply one patch once per day.
• B. Leave the patch on for 9 hours.
• C. Apply the patch to the child's waistline.
• D. Use the opened tray within 6 months.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering transdermal Methylphenidate, the patch should be left on for 9 hours per day to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. This duration helps maintain a consistent level of the drug in the child's system. Incorrect options: A) Applying one patch once per day is not the correct dosing regimen for transdermal Methylphenidate. C) The patch should not be applied to the child's waistline as it is recommended to apply it to a clean, dry area. D) Using the opened tray within 6 months is not directly related to the administration of transdermal Methylphenidate.

2. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the patch each evening.
• B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
• C. Remove the nitroglycerin patch for 30 minutes if a headache occurs.
• D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a nitrate-free period of 10 to 12 hours during each 24-hour period, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Choice B is incorrect because cutting the patch could alter the dose delivery and is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as removing the patch for 30 minutes when a headache occurs may not be effective in managing symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as Nitroglycerin patches are usually applied once daily, not every 48 hours.

3. A client with chronic myeloid leukemia is receiving hydroxyurea. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving hydroxyurea, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections, making it crucial for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count.

4. When teaching a client about a new prescription for Celecoxib, which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction
• B. Decreases the risk of stroke
• C. Inhibits COX-1
• D. Increases platelet aggregation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should educate the client that taking Celecoxib increases the risk of a myocardial infarction due to its suppression of vasodilation. Celecoxib belongs to the class of NSAIDs known to have cardiovascular risks, including an increased risk of heart attacks. Choice B is incorrect because Celecoxib does not decrease the risk of stroke. Choice C is incorrect because Celecoxib selectively inhibits COX-2 rather than COX-1. Choice D is incorrect because Celecoxib does not increase platelet aggregation; in fact, it inhibits platelet aggregation.

5. A client reports taking Aspirin about four times daily for a sprained wrist. Which of the following prescribed medications taken by the client is contraindicated with aspirin?

• A. Digoxin
• B. Metformin
• C. Warfarin
• D. Nitroglycerin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Warfarin. Aspirin increases the effect of anticoagulants like warfarin by inhibiting platelet aggregation, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the use of aspirin is generally contraindicated for clients taking warfarin. Choices A, B, and D are not contraindicated with aspirin. Digoxin, Metformin, and Nitroglycerin do not have significant interactions with Aspirin, unlike Warfarin, making them safe to use concomitantly.

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