ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A client has Diabetes Mellitus, Pulmonary Tuberculosis, and a new prescription for Isoniazid. Which of the following supplements should the nurse expect to administer to prevent an adverse effect of INH?
- A. Ascorbic acid
- B. Pyridoxine
- C. Folic acid
- D. Cyanocobalamin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pyridoxine is administered with Isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy, a common adverse effect of the drug. It is essential to provide this supplement to the client to minimize the risk of developing this adverse effect. Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) is not typically given to prevent INH adverse effects. Folic acid and Cyanocobalamin are not commonly administered with INH for this purpose.
2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Amiodarone, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with meals.
- B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice when taking Amiodarone. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of Amiodarone, leading to increased blood levels of the drug and potentially causing adverse effects like cardiac toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Amiodarone with meals, at bedtime, or increasing sodium-rich foods intake are not relevant instructions for this medication.
3. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Increased TSH level
- B. Decreased ALT level
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyperlipidemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.
4. Which of the following conditions are not treated with opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone?
- A. Pulmonary Edema
- B. Cough suppression
- C. Sedation
- D. Pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone are primarily used for pain management and cough suppression. Sedation is not a primary indication for these medications.
5. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?
- A. Intestinal ileus
- B. Neutropenia
- C. Delirium
- D. Hyperthermia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV Nitroprusside is infused at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, causing mental status changes such as delirium. It is crucial to monitor the thiocyanate levels to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL during therapy to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because IV Nitroprusside is not commonly associated with intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia. Monitoring for delirium is crucial due to the risk of thiocyanate toxicity.
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