a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enoxaparin for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis which of the following actions should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Proctored Pharmacology ATI

1. A client is receiving Enoxaparin for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enoxaparin, a medication used for preventing deep vein thrombosis, should be administered into the subcutaneous tissue, typically in the abdomen. Administering the medication intramuscularly (Choice B) or into the deltoid muscle (Choice D) is incorrect because Enoxaparin is specifically formulated for subcutaneous administration. Massaging the injection site after administration (Choice A) is contraindicated as it may lead to tissue damage and affect the absorption of the medication. Therefore, the correct action is to administer the medication into the subcutaneous tissue as directed.

2. The client with angina is being discharged to home. The nurse is instructing the client on dietary changes. What should be included in this teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease salt and fat intake and limit alcohol intake. These dietary changes can help manage angina by reducing the workload on the heart and preventing further plaque buildup in the arteries. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as dietary restrictions for angina typically involve reducing salt, fat, and alcohol intake, rather than increasing sugar or cholesterol intake.

3. A client has been prescribed Methotrexate to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Methotrexate is hepatotoxic, and avoiding alcohol is crucial to prevent liver damage. However, Option A (Take this medication with food to prevent nausea) could also be correct, as Methotrexate commonly causes nausea, and taking it with food can help alleviate this side effect. However, the most important instruction is to avoid alcohol due to the risk of liver toxicity.

4. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.\n Choice B, increased urination, is not a common side effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, persistent cough, is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors rather than calcium channel blockers like Amlodipine. Choice D, dark-colored urine, is not a typical side effect of Amlodipine and is not something the client should specifically monitor for and report while taking this medication.

5. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is starting therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The healthcare professional should instruct the client to report dyspnea since it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Monitoring and reporting dyspnea promptly can help in early detection and management of potential serious complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are not urgent findings requiring immediate reporting.

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