Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for Phenytoin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
• C. Brush and floss your teeth regularly.
• D. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Brush and floss your teeth regularly.' Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, a condition that leads to overgrowth of gum tissue. Good oral hygiene practices such as regular brushing and flossing can help prevent or minimize this side effect. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are not directly related to managing the side effects of Phenytoin. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice A) is not a specific instruction related to oral hygiene. Increasing calcium-rich foods intake (choice B) may be beneficial for bone health but is not directly related to preventing gingival hyperplasia. Avoiding foods high in potassium (choice D) is not a necessary instruction for a client taking Phenytoin.

2. While caring for a client receiving Heparin therapy, which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. PT
• B. INR
• C. aPTT
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when caring for a client receiving Heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin, which primarily affects this pathway by potentiating antithrombin III. Monitoring the aPTT helps ensure that the client's blood is within the therapeutic range to prevent thrombus formation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are used to monitor Warfarin therapy, not Heparin. Platelet count is important in assessing for thrombocytopenia but is not a specific indicator of Heparin therapy effectiveness.

3. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who is starting therapy with paclitaxel. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neutropenia. Paclitaxel commonly causes neutropenia due to bone marrow suppression. It is essential for clients receiving this medication to monitor for signs of neutropenia, such as fever, chills, and increased susceptibility to infections, as it can increase the risk of serious complications.

4. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

• A. Intestinal ileus
• B. Neutropenia
• C. Delirium
• D. Hyperthermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV nitroprusside is administered at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, resulting in mental status changes such as delirium. Monitoring thiocyanate levels during therapy is crucial to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL to prevent this adverse reaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because nitroprusside does not typically cause intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia as adverse reactions.

5. A client is taking atorvastatin for hyperlipidemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

• A. Headache
• B. Nausea
• C. Muscle pain
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle pain should be reported immediately as it can indicate rhabdomyolysis, a severe adverse effect of atorvastatin. Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by muscle pain, weakness, and can lead to serious complications such as kidney damage, making it crucial for the nurse to notify the provider promptly. Headache, nausea, and diarrhea are common side effects of atorvastatin and do not require immediate reporting unless severe or persistent.

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