Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients receiving antimicrobial therapy. Which of the following clients should the professional plan to monitor for manifestations of antibiotic toxicity?

• A. An adolescent client with a sinus infection
• B. An older adult client with prostatitis
• C. A client who is postpartum with mastitis
• D. A middle-aged client with a urinary tract infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An older adult client with prostatitis who is receiving antibiotics should be monitored for toxicity due to age-related reductions in medication metabolism and excretion. Older adults are more susceptible to antibiotic toxicity, making them a high-risk group for adverse effects.

2. A client with Graves' disease is being taught about her prescribed medications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of Propranolol in the treatment of Graves' disease?

• A. Propranolol helps increase blood flow to my thyroid gland.
• B. Propranolol is used to prevent excess glucose in my blood.
• C. Propranolol will decrease my tremors and fast heart rate.
• D. Propranolol promotes a decrease in thyroid hormone in my body.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol is a beta-adrenergic antagonist that helps decrease heart rate and control tremors in individuals with Graves' disease. It does not increase blood flow to the thyroid gland (choice A), prevent excess glucose in the blood (choice B), or directly decrease thyroid hormone levels in the body (choice D). Propranolol's primary role in Graves' disease is to alleviate symptoms like tremors and fast heart rate by blocking the effects of excessive thyroid hormone, rather than reducing the actual levels of thyroid hormone in the body.

3. A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.

• A. H
• B. ACE inhibitor
• C. Antifungal
• D. Beta agonist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Drugs with names ending in -pril are classified as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. These medications are commonly used to manage conditions like high blood pressure, heart failure, and diabetic kidney disease by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.

4. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Increased TSH level
• B. Decreased ALT level
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.

5. When administering IV Acyclovir to a client with Varicella, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer a stool softener
• B. Decrease fluid intake following infusion
• C. Infuse Acyclovir over 1 hr
• D. Monitor for hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering IV Acyclovir to a client with Varicella, the nurse should infuse the medication over at least 1 hour to prevent nephrotoxicity. Rapid infusion can lead to adverse effects such as renal damage. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the recommended infusion rate to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect as stool softeners are not indicated in this situation. Choice B is incorrect because fluid intake should be maintained or increased to prevent dehydration and support kidney function. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring for hypotension is not specifically related to the administration of IV Acyclovir in Varicella.

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