Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Ciprofloxacin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with meals.
• B. Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
• C. Take this medication at bedtime.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products because calcium can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Instructing the client to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products will ensure optimal effectiveness of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because Ciprofloxacin is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach or with a full glass of water. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take Ciprofloxacin at bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to increase intake of potassium-rich foods in relation to taking Ciprofloxacin.

2. What is the primary use of lithium?

• A. Lower blood glucose
• B. Slow the heart rate
• C. Stabilize mood
• D. Heal ulcers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stabilize mood. Lithium is primarily used to stabilize mood, especially in conditions like bipolar disorder. It helps in reducing the frequency and severity of manic episodes, making it an essential medication for mood stabilization. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as lithium is not used to lower blood glucose, slow the heart rate, or heal ulcers.

3. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is beginning therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Prompt reporting of dyspnea allows for timely evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings that the client should report.

4. A client prescribed Warfarin is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• D. Avoid foods high in iron.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of Warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can reduce the medication's anticoagulant effect. Therefore, clients taking Warfarin should be advised to avoid or consume a consistent amount of foods high in vitamin K to maintain the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables, dairy products, or avoiding foods high in iron are not directly related to the interaction with Warfarin.

5. During an assessment, a male client who has recently started taking Haloperidol is displaying certain symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize in reporting to the provider?

• A. Shuffling gait
• B. Neck spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Impotence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are indicative of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that requires urgent intervention. Immediate reporting to the provider is crucial to address this potentially harmful condition and ensure the client's safety. Shuffling gait, drowsiness, and impotence are important to monitor but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as acute dystonia. Acute dystonia can lead to serious complications if not promptly treated, making it the priority in this scenario.

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