a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for ciprofloxacin which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client has a new prescription for Ciprofloxacin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products because calcium can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Instructing the client to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products will ensure optimal effectiveness of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because Ciprofloxacin is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach or with a full glass of water. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take Ciprofloxacin at bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to increase intake of potassium-rich foods in relation to taking Ciprofloxacin.

2. A client has a new prescription for methotrexate to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis. The nurse should expect to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is bone marrow suppression (Choice C). Methotrexate can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in adverse effects such as anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Monitoring for signs of decreased blood cell counts is essential to prevent complications and adjust treatment as needed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insomnia, hypertension, and constipation are not typically associated with methotrexate use in the treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis.

3. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause xerostomia (dry mouth) due to its effect on reducing salivary flow. Monitoring for dry mouth is important as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort for the client. Diarrhea, insomnia, and hypertension are not typically associated with clonidine use, making them less likely adverse effects to monitor for in this scenario.

4. A healthcare provider in a clinic is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for Digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Potassium 3.4 mEq/L is below the expected reference range, which increases the risk for digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can lead to fatal dysrhythmias, particularly in older clients taking Digoxin. Hypokalemia potentiates the effects of Digoxin, making the heart more sensitive to its toxic effects. Monitoring and correcting electrolyte imbalances, especially low potassium levels, are crucial to prevent adverse effects of digoxin therapy. Calcium levels do not directly influence digoxin toxicity, so choices A and B are incorrect. High potassium levels, as in choice D, are less likely to increase the risk of digoxin toxicity compared to low potassium levels.

5. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause a non-productive cough due to its effect on bradykinin levels. The client should be advised to report this symptom to their healthcare provider to consider alternative treatments. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not typically associated with Enalapril use.

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