ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is receiving discharge instructions for long-term use of Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Stop taking the medication if you experience swelling.
- B. The provider will monitor your weight regularly.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. You may notice decreased appetite while on this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because long-term use of Prednisone can lead to weight gain, necessitating regular weight monitoring by the healthcare provider to manage any potential complications. Prednisone often causes fluid retention, leading to weight gain, hence the need for weight monitoring. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because swelling is not a typical reason to stop Prednisone, taking it on an empty stomach is not usually required, and Prednisone commonly increases appetite rather than decreases it.
2. A client has a new prescription for Captopril for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Neutropenia is a serious adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors like Captopril. It is characterized by a decreased level of neutrophils, which are important in fighting infections. Monitoring the client's complete blood count (CBC) is crucial to detect neutropenia early. The nurse should also educate the client on recognizing signs of infection and promptly reporting them to the healthcare provider for timely intervention. Hypokalemia is a potential adverse effect of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Hypernatremia is an electrolyte imbalance more commonly associated with conditions like dehydration. Bradycardia is not a typical adverse effect of Captopril.
3. A client has a new prescription for Levodopa/Carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase intake of protein-rich foods.
- B. Expect muscle twitching to occur.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Anticipate relief of manifestations in 24 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to take Levodopa/Carbidopa with food. This recommendation helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects commonly associated with this medication. Food can help minimize nausea and other stomach-related issues that may occur when taking Levodopa/Carbidopa. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of protein-rich foods is not necessary with this medication. Muscle twitching is not an expected side effect of Levodopa/Carbidopa. Anticipating relief of manifestations in 24 hours is unrealistic as it may take days to weeks for the full therapeutic effect of the medication to be achieved.
4. A client is prescribed Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Store the medication in a cool, dry place.
- C. Swallow the tablets whole.
- D. Take one tablet every 5 minutes up to three doses for chest pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a chest pain episode, the client should take one nitroglycerin tablet sublingually every 5 minutes up to a total of three doses. If chest pain persists after three doses, emergency medical attention should be sought. Nitroglycerin should not be swallowed but allowed to dissolve under the tongue for rapid absorption. Storing the medication in a cool, dry place helps maintain its effectiveness.
5. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about Terbutaline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. This medication will stop my contractions.
- B. This medication will prevent vaginal bleeding.
- C. This medication will promote blood flow to my baby.
- D. This medication will increase my prostaglandin production.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors, leading to uterine smooth muscle relaxation and stopping contractions. It is commonly used to delay preterm labor. Choice B is incorrect because Terbutaline is not used to prevent vaginal bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because Terbutaline's primary action is not related to promoting blood flow to the baby. Choice D is incorrect because Terbutaline does not increase prostaglandin production; instead, it works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors.
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