Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving discharge teaching for Metronidazole prescribed for an infection. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. I should take this medication with food.
• C. I should increase my intake of dairy products while taking this medication.
• D. I should avoid taking dairy products while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alcohol should be avoided while taking Metronidazole because it can lead to a disulfiram-like reaction, causing severe nausea and vomiting. It is important for the client to understand this to prevent adverse reactions and ensure the effectiveness of the medication in treating the infection. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Metronidazole with food is recommended to decrease gastrointestinal upset, and there is no specific need to increase or avoid dairy products while taking this medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for postmenopausal osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Swallow tablets on an empty stomach with plenty of water.
• B. Watch for skin rash and redness when applying calcitonin-salmon topically.
• C. Mix the liquid medication with juice and take it after meals.
• D. Alternate nostrils each time calcitonin-salmon is inhaled.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Calcitonin-salmon is commonly administered intranasally for postmenopausal osteoporosis. It is essential to alternate nostrils daily when inhaling the medication to ensure equal distribution and optimal absorption. This technique helps prevent irritation and congestion in one nostril and enhances the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcitonin-salmon is not swallowed, applied topically, or taken as a liquid medication after meals. Therefore, instructing the client to alternate nostrils during inhalation is the most appropriate teaching for this medication.

3. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Furosemide, a diuretic, commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) as it increases the excretion of sodium. The nurse needs to monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as confusion, weakness, and muscle cramps, by checking electrolyte levels regularly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hyperkalemia (choice A), hypernatremia (choice C), and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with Furosemide use.

4. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely observe the client's lower extremities for any signs of swelling, which could indicate the development of edema. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because Nifedipine is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is unrelated to Nifedipine's common adverse effects. Choice D, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Nifedipine use.

5. When reviewing a client's health record, a healthcare professional notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should be identified as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia by increasing the excretion of potassium in the urine. This potassium loss can result in lower-than-normal levels of potassium in the body, leading to hypokalemia.

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