ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is receiving discharge teaching for Metronidazole prescribed for an infection. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- B. I should take this medication with food.
- C. I should increase my intake of dairy products while taking this medication.
- D. I should avoid taking dairy products while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alcohol should be avoided while taking Metronidazole because it can lead to a disulfiram-like reaction, causing severe nausea and vomiting. It is important for the client to understand this to prevent adverse reactions and ensure the effectiveness of the medication in treating the infection. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Metronidazole with food is recommended to decrease gastrointestinal upset, and there is no specific need to increase or avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
2. What is the expected outcome of Valproate therapy?
- A. Decreased fever
- B. Decreased sense of anxiety
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Decreased seizure activity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased seizure activity. Valproate is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy to help control and reduce seizure frequency. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Valproate is not primarily used to treat fever, anxiety, or blood pressure issues.
3. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Increased TSH level
- B. Decreased ALT level
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyperlipidemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels, can occur as an adverse effect of Ritonavir. Monitoring lipid levels is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect in clients taking this medication for HIV infection.
4. Potassium-sparing diuretics primarily affect which part of the kidney?
- A. Proximal convoluted tubule
- B. Loop of Henle
- C. Collecting duct
- D. Distal convoluted tubule
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics exert their primary effects on the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney. By acting on this specific part of the nephron, these diuretics promote sodium excretion while sparing potassium, thus helping to maintain potassium levels in the body. This mechanism differs from other diuretics that may cause potassium loss as a side effect. Understanding the site of action of potassium-sparing diuretics is crucial in clinical practice for managing conditions like hypertension and edema where diuresis is necessary without the risk of hypokalemia.
5. A client is receiving Gentamicin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess for nephrotoxicity?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum creatinine.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum glucose.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is receiving Gentamicin, the nurse should monitor serum creatinine levels to assess for nephrotoxicity. Gentamicin is known to potentially cause nephrotoxicity, leading to impaired kidney function. Monitoring serum creatinine levels helps in early detection of any kidney damage or dysfunction. Serum sodium, serum potassium, and serum glucose levels are not directly related to nephrotoxicity caused by Gentamicin, so they are not the appropriate values to monitor in this case.
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