ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is receiving discharge instructions for a new prescription of Warfarin. Which of the following over-the-counter medications should the client be instructed to avoid?
- A. Acetaminophen
- B. Ibuprofen
- C. Diphenhydramine
- D. Loratadine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with Warfarin due to its antiplatelet effects. Patients on Warfarin should avoid NSAIDs like Ibuprofen and opt for alternative pain relief options to prevent potential complications such as an increased risk of bleeding. Acetaminophen (Choice A), Diphenhydramine (Choice C), and Loratadine (Choice D) are not known to significantly interact with Warfarin in terms of bleeding risk and are generally considered safe to use alongside Warfarin.
2. Why is it important to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors?
- A. To assess for renal impairment
- B. To ensure the patient is receiving adequate fluid intake
- C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure
- D. To assess for NSAID use
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is crucial to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors to assess for renal impairment. ACE inhibitors can affect renal function, potentially leading to renal impairment. Monitoring the patient's fluid balance helps in early recognition of any renal issues and allows for timely interventions to prevent complications.
3. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Increased TSH level
- B. Decreased ALT level
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyperlipidemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels, can occur as an adverse effect of Ritonavir. Monitoring lipid levels is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect in clients taking this medication for HIV infection.
4. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who is starting therapy with paclitaxel. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neutropenia. Paclitaxel commonly causes neutropenia due to bone marrow suppression. It is essential for clients receiving this medication to monitor for signs of neutropenia, such as fever, chills, and increased susceptibility to infections, as it can increase the risk of serious complications.
5. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can cause hyperkalemia by affecting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's potassium levels due to the risk of hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. Choice C, bradycardia, is not directly associated with Valsartan use. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Valsartan.
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