Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report that can indicate the medication is effective?

• A. Headache
• B. Nausea
• C. Dizziness
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Headache is a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory effects. It can indicate that the medication is working effectively by dilating blood vessels, improving blood flow, and reducing cardiac workload. Therefore, the client should report experiencing headaches as it may suggest the therapeutic action of nitroglycerin. Nausea, dizziness, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the therapeutic effects of nitroglycerin and should be reported as adverse effects that may necessitate medical attention.

2. A hospitalized client receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Vitamin K1
• B. Atropine
• C. Protamine
• D. Calcium gluconate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing a serious complication of heparin therapy, likely due to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Protamine is the antidote for heparin and can reverse its anticoagulant effects. It is essential to administer protamine promptly to counteract the effects of heparin and manage the bleeding. Vitamin K1 is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia or some types of poisoning. Calcium gluconate is used to manage hyperkalemia or calcium channel blocker toxicity, not to reverse heparin's effects.

3. A client has an infection and a prescription for gentamicin intermittent IV bolus every 8 hr. A peak and trough is required with the next dose. Which of the following actions should be taken to obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level?

• A. Draw a trough level immediately prior to administering the medication and a peak level 30 min after the dose.
• B. Draw a peak level 90 min prior to administering the medication and a trough level 90 min after the dose.
• C. Draw a trough level immediately prior to administering the medication and a peak level 30 min after the dose.
• D. Draw a peak level at 0900 and a trough level at 2100.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level, the trough should be drawn immediately before administering the medication, and the peak level should be drawn 30 minutes after the dose. This timing allows for the assessment of the lowest and highest drug concentrations in the bloodstream, ensuring therapeutic levels are achieved while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Choice A is correct as it follows this timing protocol. Choices B and D have incorrect timing for peak and trough levels, which would not provide an accurate representation of the drug's concentration in the bloodstream.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with a new prescription for Epoetin Alfa. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. The client has a history of hypertension.
• B. The client has a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL.
• C. The client has a history of chronic kidney disease.
• D. The client has a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chronic kidney disease is a contraindication for the use of Epoetin Alfa because it can worsen hypertension, increase the risk of cardiovascular events, and lead to adverse outcomes. Epoetin Alfa is used to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production, but in the presence of chronic kidney disease, it can exacerbate hypertension and contribute to cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the contraindication of Epoetin Alfa in the presence of chronic kidney disease.

5. A client is receiving combination chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients receiving chemotherapy due to the increased risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice A), nausea and vomiting (Choice B), and anorexia (Choice D) are common side effects of chemotherapy but do not typically indicate an oncologic emergency requiring immediate intervention.

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