Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following statements should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Take the medication with a high-fat meal.
• B. Monitor your heart rate before taking the medication.
• C. Expect a persistent cough.
• D. Avoid foods high in fiber.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Atenolol, a beta-blocker, they should monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. It is crucial because if the heart rate is below 60 bpm, the client needs to contact their healthcare provider for further guidance and evaluation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Atenolol does not need to be taken with a high-fat meal, does not typically cause a persistent cough, and there is no need to avoid foods high in fiber when taking this medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for Metformin to treat type 2 diabetes. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored?

• A. Hemoglobin A1C
• B. Liver function tests
• C. Electrolyte levels
• D. Kidney function

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metformin is excreted by the kidneys, and impaired kidney function can lead to an increased risk of lactic acidosis, a serious side effect. Therefore, it is important to monitor kidney function regularly while a client is on Metformin. Hemoglobin A1C is used to monitor long-term glucose control, but kidney function is the priority for monitoring Metformin therapy.

3. A client has a new prescription for rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Fever
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. The nurse should instruct the client to report fever as it can be an indication of an infection, which is a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring for fever is crucial to detect early signs of infection and prevent complications. Dizziness (choice A), urinary frequency (choice C), and dry mouth (choice D) are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are not the primary concerns that the nurse needs to address with the client.

4. A client is receiving discharge instructions for a new prescription of Warfarin. Which of the following over-the-counter medications should the client be instructed to avoid?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Ibuprofen
• C. Diphenhydramine
• D. Loratadine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with Warfarin due to its antiplatelet effects. Patients on Warfarin should avoid NSAIDs like Ibuprofen and opt for alternative pain relief options to prevent potential complications such as an increased risk of bleeding. Acetaminophen (Choice A), Diphenhydramine (Choice C), and Loratadine (Choice D) are not known to significantly interact with Warfarin in terms of bleeding risk and are generally considered safe to use alongside Warfarin.

5. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Fomepizole
• B. Naloxone
• C. Phytonadione
• D. Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's symptoms of face spasms after receiving Prochlorperazine indicate acute dystonia, a known side effect. Diphenhydramine is commonly administered to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, such as muscle spasms, caused by medications like Prochlorperazine. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Diphenhydramine to alleviate the client's symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used in opioid overdose, and Phytonadione is vitamin K, used to reverse the effects of certain blood thinners.

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