ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 750 mL IV to infuse over 6 hr. How many mL/hr should the IV pump be set to deliver?
- A. 125 mL/hr
- B. 100 mL/hr
- C. 150 mL/hr
- D. 200 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the flow rate, divide the total volume by the total time: 750 mL / 6 hr = 125 mL/hr. Therefore, the IV pump should be set to deliver 125 mL/hr to infuse D5W 750 mL over 6 hours. Choice B (100 mL/hr) is incorrect because it does not accurately divide the total volume by the total time. Choice C (150 mL/hr) and Choice D (200 mL/hr) are incorrect as they are not the correct flow rates needed to infuse the D5W solution over the specified time period.
2. A client has a new prescription for Allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Increase your fluid intake.
- C. Avoid foods high in calcium.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Allopurinol can increase the risk of kidney stones as a side effect. To prevent this adverse effect, it is essential for the client to increase their fluid intake. Adequate hydration can help in preventing the formation of kidney stones by keeping urine dilute and flushing out substances that can lead to stone formation.
3. When teaching a client about a new prescription for Celecoxib, which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction
- B. Decreases the risk of stroke
- C. Inhibits COX-1
- D. Increases platelet aggregation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should educate the client that taking Celecoxib increases the risk of a myocardial infarction due to its suppression of vasodilation. Celecoxib belongs to the class of NSAIDs known to have cardiovascular risks, including an increased risk of heart attacks. Choice B is incorrect because Celecoxib does not decrease the risk of stroke. Choice C is incorrect because Celecoxib selectively inhibits COX-2 rather than COX-1. Choice D is incorrect because Celecoxib does not increase platelet aggregation; in fact, it inhibits platelet aggregation.
4. Potassium-sparing diuretics primarily affect which part of the kidney?
- A. Proximal convoluted tubule
- B. Loop of Henle
- C. Collecting duct
- D. Distal convoluted tubule
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics exert their primary effects on the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney. By acting on this specific part of the nephron, these diuretics promote sodium excretion while sparing potassium, thus helping to maintain potassium levels in the body. This mechanism differs from other diuretics that may cause potassium loss as a side effect. Understanding the site of action of potassium-sparing diuretics is crucial in clinical practice for managing conditions like hypertension and edema where diuresis is necessary without the risk of hypokalemia.
5. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is starting therapy with topotecan. Which of the following findings should the professional instruct the client to report?
- A. Hair loss
- B. Fatigue
- C. Sore throat
- D. Red urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Sore throat.' Clients starting therapy with topotecan should be instructed to report a sore throat because it can indicate an infection due to the immunosuppressive effects of the medication. Infections can be serious in clients undergoing chemotherapy, so early detection and treatment are crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are potential side effects of topotecan, they are usually not as immediately concerning as a sore throat, which could signal a serious infection requiring prompt attention.
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